Top 100 Most Repeated Government Pharmacist Exam MCQs with Detailed Solutions: Subject-Wise High-Yield Question Bank

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Name Of Post : Top 100 Most Repeated Government Pharmacist Exam MCQs with Detailed Solutions: Subject-Wise High-Yield Question Bank
Last Updated : 20 September 2026 | 01:45 AM
Short Information : Boost your exam preparation with the authentic Top 100 Most Repeated Government Pharmacist Exam Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) curated by SarkariPharma.com. Compiled from official shift papers of Railway RRB Pharmacist, AIIMS CRE Pharmacist Grade II, ESIC, DSSSB, and State NHM. Includes verified answer keys and in-depth rationales across Pharmacology, Pharmaceutics, Jurisprudence, Hospital Pharmacy, and Pharmacognosy. Start practicing below.
Subject Module Questions Covered Core Focus Topics Exam Weightage
Module 1: Pharmacology & Toxicology Q.1 to Q.25 Antidotes, DOC, ADRs, Receptors 25% – 28%
Module 2: Pharmaceutics & Posology Q.26 to Q.50 Sterilization, Dose rules, Tablets, HLB 22% – 25%
Module 3: Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence Q.51 to Q.75 D&C Schedules (H, X, M, P), Pharmacy Act 15% – 18%
Module 4: Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Q.76 to Q.90 Cold chain 2°C–8°C, PTC, Latin terms 12% – 15%
Module 5: Pharmacognosy & Biochemistry Q.91 to Q.100 Alkaloids tests, Glycosides, Vitamins 10% – 12%

MODULE 1: PHARMACOLOGY & CLINICAL TOXICOLOGY (Q.1 TO Q.25)
Q.1: Which of the following is the specific antidote for Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) poisoning?
  1. Naloxone
  2. N-Acetylcysteine
  3. Atropine
  4. Flumazenil
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (N-Acetylcysteine)
Explanation: N-Acetylcysteine replenishes hepatic glutathione reserves which conjugate and detoxify the toxic metabolite NAPQI.

Q.2: What is the drug of choice (DOC) for the emergency management of Anaphylactic Shock?
  1. Hydrocortisone
  2. Adrenaline (Epinephrine) Intramuscular
  3. Diphenhydramine
  4. Dopamine
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Adrenaline (Epinephrine) Intramuscular)
Explanation: Adrenaline IM (1:1000) rapidly reverses bronchospasm (beta-2), vasodilation/hypotension (alpha-1), and inhibits mediator release.

Q.3: “Gray Baby Syndrome” is a fatal adverse drug reaction associated with which antibiotic?
  1. Tetracycline
  2. Chloramphenicol
  3. Gentamicin
  4. Erythromycin
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Chloramphenicol)
Explanation: Neonates lack the UDP-glucuronyl transferase enzyme and have immature renal clearance, causing chloramphenicol toxicity.

Q.4: Which drug acts as a specific antagonist for Heparin overdose?
  1. Vitamin K1 (Phytonadione)
  2. Protamine Sulphate
  3. Aminocaproic Acid
  4. Deferoxamine
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Protamine Sulphate)
Explanation: Protamine sulphate is a strongly basic polycationic peptide that chemically neutralizes strongly acidic heparin.

Q.5: The mechanism of action of Methotrexate is the competitive inhibition of:
  1. DNA Polymerase
  2. Dihydrofolate Reductase (DHFR)
  3. Topoisomerase II
  4. Thymidylate Synthase directly
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Dihydrofolate Reductase (DHFR))
Explanation: Methotrexate competitively inhibits DHFR, preventing the synthesis of active tetrahydrofolate necessary for thymidylate and purines.

Q.6: Which adverse drug reaction is characteristically associated with ACE inhibitors like Enalapril?
  1. Persistent Dry Cough
  2. Hypokalemia
  3. Hypoglycemia
  4. Tachycardia
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Persistent Dry Cough)
Explanation: ACE normally breaks down bradykinin. Inhibiting ACE leads to bradykinin accumulation in bronchial tissue causing persistent dry cough.

Q.7: “Red Man Syndrome” is an adverse reaction caused by rapid IV infusion of:
  1. Vancomycin
  2. Rifampicin
  3. Ciprofloxacin
  4. Amphotericin B
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Vancomycin)
Explanation: Rapid vancomycin infusion triggers direct histamine release from mast cells. It must be infused over at least 60 minutes.

Q.8: Which of the following is the specific antidote for acute Organophosphate poisoning?
  1. Atropine + Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
  2. Physostigmine
  3. Neostigmine
  4. Pilocarpine
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Atropine + Pralidoxime (2-PAM))
Explanation: Atropine blocks muscarinic receptor overstimulation, while Pralidoxime reactivates phosphorylated acetylcholinesterase before aging.

Q.9: The specific antidote for Benzodiazepine (e.g. Diazepam, Midazolam) overdose is:
  1. Naloxone
  2. Flumazenil
  3. Naltrexone
  4. Dimercaprol
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Flumazenil)
Explanation: Flumazenil is a competitive antagonist at the central benzodiazepine site on GABA-A receptors, reversing sedation and respiratory depression.

Q.10: Disulfiram (Antabuse) produces an unpleasant reaction when consumed with alcohol by inhibiting:
  1. Alcohol Dehydrogenase
  2. Aldehyde Dehydrogenase
  3. Cytochrome P450 2E1
  4. Catalase
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Aldehyde Dehydrogenase)
Explanation: Inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase causes toxic acetaldehyde accumulation, causing flushing, throbbing headache, and nausea.

Q.11: Which antidiabetic drug is notorious for causing Lactic Acidosis as a rare but severe complication?
  1. Glimepiride
  2. Metformin
  3. Pioglitazone
  4. Sitagliptin
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Metformin)
Explanation: Metformin reduces hepatic lactate clearance. In patients with renal failure, lactate accumulation leads to fatal lactic acidosis.

Q.12: Which diuretic acts primarily by inhibiting Na+/Cl- cotransporter in the Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)?
  1. Furosemide
  2. Hydrochlorothiazide
  3. Spironolactone
  4. Acetazolamide
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Hydrochlorothiazide)
Explanation: Thiazide diuretics block the luminal Na+/Cl- cotransporter in the early distal convoluted tubule of nephrons.

Q.13: The drug of choice for the immediate termination of Status Epilepticus is:
  1. Intravenous Lorazepam / Diazepam
  2. Oral Phenytoin
  3. Oral Carbamazepine
  4. Ethosuximide
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Intravenous Lorazepam / Diazepam)
Explanation: Fast-acting IV benzodiazepines (Lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg or Diazepam) cross the blood-brain barrier rapidly to terminate seizures.

Q.14: Which anti-tubercular drug causes Retrobulbar Optic Neuritis with red-green colour blindness?
  1. Isoniazid
  2. Rifampicin
  3. Ethambutol
  4. Pyrazinamide
✔ Correct Answer: Option C (Ethambutol)
Explanation: Ethambutol causes dose-dependent optic neuritis. Visual acuity and red-green discrimination must be tested regularly.

Q.15: Peripheral neuropathy caused by Isoniazid (INH) therapy is prevented by co-administering:
  1. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
  2. Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
  3. Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin)
  4. Vitamin C
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine))
Explanation: INH binds pyridoxal phosphate forming hydrazones and enhances urinary excretion of vitamin B6, producing peripheral neuropathy.

Q.16: Which lipid-lowering drug class acts by competitively inhibiting HMG-CoA Reductase?
  1. Fibrates
  2. Statins (Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin)
  3. Bile acid sequestrants
  4. Ezetimibe
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Statins (Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin))
Explanation: Statins are structural analogs of HMG-CoA that inhibit the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis in the liver.

Q.17: What is the specific antidote for acute Iron poisoning?
  1. BAL (Dimercaprol)
  2. Deferoxamine
  3. Penicillamine
  4. EDTA
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Deferoxamine)
Explanation: Deferoxamine chelates ferric (Fe3+) iron, forming a stable water-soluble ferrioxamine complex excreted in urine.

Q.18: Which antibiotic causes permanent teeth discoloration and enamel hypoplasia in children?
  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Azithromycin
  4. Cefixime
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Tetracycline)
Explanation: Tetracyclines chelate with calcium orthophosphate in developing teeth and bones, leading to permanent brownish-yellow staining.

Q.19: The primary mechanism of bactericidal action of Penicillins and Cephalosporins is:
  1. Inhibition of 30S ribosomal subunit
  2. Inhibition of bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis
  3. Inhibition of DNA gyrase
  4. Disruption of cell membrane
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Inhibition of bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis)
Explanation: Beta-lactams bind to penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) and block transpeptidase cross-linking of the peptidoglycan cell wall.

Q.20: Which of the following is an ultra-short-acting barbiturate used for general anesthesia induction?
  1. Phenobarbital
  2. Thiopental Sodium
  3. Pentobarbital
  4. Secobarbital
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Thiopental Sodium)
Explanation: Thiopental induces anesthesia within 20 seconds. Its short duration (5-10 min) is due to rapid redistribution from brain to muscles and fat.

Q.21: The drug of choice for treating Opioid (Morphine/Heroin) overdose and respiratory depression is:
  1. Naloxone
  2. Naltrexone
  3. Methadone
  4. Buprenorphine
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Naloxone)
Explanation: Naloxone is a pure competitive opioid receptor antagonist that promptly reverses coma and pinpoint pupils within 1-2 minutes IV.

Q.22: Which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) selectively inhibits COX-2 enzyme?
  1. Celecoxib
  2. Indomethacin
  3. Ibuprofen
  4. Aspirin
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Celecoxib)
Explanation: Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 inflammatory prostaglandins while sparing gastroprotective COX-1 prostaglandins.

Q.23: Cushingoid features (Moon face, buffalo hump, central obesity) are adverse effects of long-term therapy with:
  1. Glucocorticoids (Prednisolone)
  2. Thyroxine
  3. Insulin
  4. Growth Hormone
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Glucocorticoids (Prednisolone))
Explanation: Prolonged exogenous glucocorticoid administration leads to fat redistribution, muscle wasting, osteoporosis, and hyperglycemia.

Q.24: Which drug is an active metabolite of Spironolactone?
  1. Canrenone
  2. Amiloride
  3. Triamterene
  4. Eplerenone
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Canrenone)
Explanation: Spironolactone is rapidly metabolized into Canrenone, which exerts aldosterone receptor antagonist activity.

Q.25: Which antiepileptic drug causes Gingival Hyperplasia and Hirsutism as characteristic side effects?
  1. Sodium Valproate
  2. Phenytoin
  3. Carbamazepine
  4. Levetiracetam
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Phenytoin)
Explanation: Phenytoin stimulates connective tissue and epidermal growth factors, causing fibrous gingival overgrowth in up to 20% of chronic patients.

MODULE 2: PHARMACEUTICS, PHYSICAL PHARMACY & POSOLOGY (Q.26 TO Q.50)
Q.26: According to Young’s Rule, what is the formula for calculating child’s dose from adult dose?
  1. Child Dose = [Age / (Age + 12)] * Adult Dose
  2. Child Dose = (Age / 20) * Adult Dose
  3. Child Dose = (Age in months / 150) * Adult Dose
  4. Child Dose = (Weight in lbs / 150) * Adult Dose
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Child Dose = [Age / (Age + 12)] * Adult Dose)
Explanation: Young’s rule: [Age in years / (Age + 12)] * Adult dose. Dilling’s is Age/20, Fried’s is Months/150, Clark’s is lbs/150.

Q.27: What is the standard temperature, pressure, and holding time for Steam Autoclaving as per IP?
  1. 121°C at 15 psi for 15 to 20 minutes
  2. 160°C at atmospheric pressure for 2 hours
  3. 100°C for 30 minutes on 3 successive days
  4. 134°C at 10 psi for 5 minutes
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (121°C at 15 psi for 15 to 20 minutes)
Explanation: 121°C (250°F) saturated steam at 15 lbs/sq inch destroys all vegetative bacteria and bacterial endospores by protein coagulation.

Q.28: Which biological indicator microorganism is officially used to validate Dry Heat Sterilization (Hot Air Oven)?
  1. Bacillus subtilis (Bacillus atrophaeus)
  2. Geobacillus stearothermophilus
  3. Bacillus pumilus
  4. Clostridium sporogenes
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Bacillus subtilis (Bacillus atrophaeus))
Explanation: Spores of Bacillus subtilis (atrophaeus) are highly dry-heat resistant and are used for Hot Air Oven validation (160°C for 2 hours).

Q.29: The separation of a tablet into two or more distinct horizontal layers during compression or ejection is:
  1. Capping
  2. Lamination
  3. Mottling
  4. Sticking
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Lamination)
Explanation: Lamination is the horizontal separation of a tablet into multiple layers caused by air entrapment during fast compaction.

Q.30: What is the official disintegration time limit for standard Uncoated Tablets as per Indian Pharmacopoeia?
  1. 15 minutes
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 60 minutes
  4. 5 minutes
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (15 minutes)
Explanation: As per IP, uncoated tablets must disintegrate in water at 37°C in <= 15 minutes. Sugar-coated: 60 min; Film-coated: 30 min.

Q.31: Enteric coated tablets must NOT disintegrate in simulated gastric fluid (0.1 N HCl) for:
  1. 15 minutes
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 2 hours (120 minutes)
  4. 4 hours
✔ Correct Answer: Option C (2 hours (120 minutes))
Explanation: Enteric coated tablets must resist 0.1 N HCl for 2 hours, and disintegrate in phosphate buffer pH 6.8 within 60 minutes.

Q.32: The Griffin HLB value range for Water-in-Oil (W/O) emulsifying agents is:
  1. 3 to 6
  2. 8 to 16
  3. 13 to 15
  4. 16 to 18
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (3 to 6)
Explanation: HLB 3-6 represents lipophilic W/O emulsifiers (e.g. Span). HLB 8-16 represents hydrophilic O/W emulsifiers (e.g. Tween).

Q.33: Complete destruction and irreversible separation of internal and external phases in an emulsion is termed:
  1. Creaming
  2. Cracking (Breaking)
  3. Flocculation
  4. Phase Inversion
✔ Correct Answer: Option B (Cracking (Breaking))
Explanation: Cracking is permanent coalescence and separation of phases due to loss of the emulsifying agent film; it cannot be restored by shaking.

Q.34: In sterile filtration, what is the standard membrane filter pore size to achieve cold sterilization of liquids?
  1. 0.22 micron
  2. 0.45 micron
  3. 1.2 micron
  4. 5.0 micron
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (0.22 micron)
Explanation: 0.22 um pore size retains Brevundimonas diminuta (smallest bacterial challenge test organism) and produces sterile filtrates.

Q.35: Which of the following is commonly used as an Enteric Coating polymer?
  1. Cellulose Acetate Phthalate (CAP)
  2. Hydroxypropyl Methylcellulose (HPMC)
  3. Ethyl Cellulose
  4. Carboxymethyl Cellulose
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Cellulose Acetate Phthalate (CAP))
Explanation: CAP dissolves only at intestinal pH > 6.0 due to ionization of its phthalate carboxylic groups, protecting gastric mucosa.

Q.36: Hard gelatin capsule shell size with the LARGEST volume capacity for human oral use is:
  1. Size 000
  2. Size 0
  3. Size 5
  4. Size 1
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Size 000)
Explanation: Capsule sizes range inversely: Size 000 is the largest (~1.37 mL) and Size 5 is the smallest (~0.13 mL).

Q.37: The preservative commonly used in multi-dose ophthalmic eye drop preparations is:
  1. Benzalkonium Chloride (0.01%)
  2. Phenol
  3. Formaldehyde
  4. Glutaraldehyde
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Benzalkonium Chloride (0.01%))
Explanation: Benzalkonium chloride 0.01% w/v is a cationic quaternary ammonium surfactant effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Q.38: What moisture content is officially permissible in Hard Gelatin Capsule shells?
  1. 13% to 16%
  2. 2% to 5%
  3. 25% to 30%
  4. Zero percent
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (13% to 16%)
Explanation: Hard gelatin capsules contain 13-16% moisture. Below 10% they become brittle; above 18% they soften and lose mechanical integrity.

Q.39: Which equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from solid dosage forms into liquid medium?
  1. Noyes-Whitney Equation
  2. Fick’s First Law of Diffusion
  3. Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation
  4. Michaelis-Menten Equation
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Noyes-Whitney Equation)
Explanation: The Noyes-Whitney equation: dM/dt = (D * A / h) * (Cs – C) defines the rate of dissolution based on surface area and concentration gradient.

Q.40: The Limulus Amebocyte Lysate (LAL) test is used specifically for the detection of:
  1. Bacterial Endotoxins (Pyrogens)
  2. Viral particles
  3. Fungal spores
  4. Particulate matter contamination
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Bacterial Endotoxins (Pyrogens))
Explanation: LAL reagent extracted from horseshoe crab blood cells coagulates into an opaque gel clot in the presence of bacterial endotoxins.

Q.41: Friability test for uncoated tablets is considered acceptable if the percentage weight loss is NOT more than:
  1. 1.0%
  2. 3.0%
  3. 5.0%
  4. 0.1%
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (1.0%)
Explanation: Using a Roche friabilator rotated 100 times (25 rpm for 4 min), weight loss must not exceed 0.8% to 1.0%.

Q.42: Which substance is most commonly added as an opacifying agent in capsule shells?
  1. Titanium Dioxide
  2. Talc
  3. Magnesium Stearate
  4. Colloidal Silicon Dioxide
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Titanium Dioxide)
Explanation: Titanium dioxide (TiO2, 0.2-0.5%) imparts white opacity to gelatin shells to shield light-sensitive active pharmaceutical ingredients.

Q.43: Non-aqueous water-soluble suppository bases are made using:
  1. Polyethylene Glycols (Macrogols / Carbowax)
  2. Theobroma Oil (Cocoa Butter)
  3. Hydrogenated vegetable oil
  4. Emulsifying Wax
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Polyethylene Glycols (Macrogols / Carbowax))
Explanation: PEGs/Macrogols dissolve in rectal secretions rather than melting at body temperature, providing stability in tropical climates.

Q.44: “Bloom Strength” is an important physical quality parameter used to measure the gel rigidity of:
  1. Gelatin
  2. Agar-agar
  3. Acacia
  4. Pectin
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Gelatin)
Explanation: Bloom strength measures the force (grams) required to depress a plunger 4 mm into a 6.67% gelatin solution. Standard grade: 150-250 g.

Q.45: According to Clark’s Rule for child dosage calculation, the divisor constant is:
  1. 150 (Weight in pounds / 150)
  2. 70 (Weight in kg / 70)
  3. 100
  4. 12
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (150 (Weight in pounds / 150))
Explanation: Clark’s Rule: Child dose = [Weight in lbs / 150] * Adult dose. If using kilograms: [Weight in kg / 70] * Adult dose.

Q.46: A preparation containing 10% w/v dextrose means:
  1. 10 grams of dextrose in 100 mL of solution
  2. 10 grams of dextrose in 1000 mL of solution
  3. 10 mg of dextrose in 100 mL of solution
  4. 10 grams in 100 grams of solvent
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (10 grams of dextrose in 100 mL of solution)
Explanation: % w/v represents the number of grams of solute dissolved in 100 milliliters of total finished liquid formulation.

Q.47: What type of rheological flow behavior is typically exhibited by liquid suspensions and emulsions?
  1. Pseudoplastic flow (Shear-thinning)
  2. Dilatant flow (Shear-thickening)
  3. Newtonian flow
  4. Plug flow
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Pseudoplastic flow (Shear-thinning))
Explanation: Suspensions exhibit pseudoplastic flow: viscosity decreases upon shaking, facilitating pouring and precise dose measurement.

Q.48: In tablet manufacturing, what is the primary functional role of Magnesium Stearate?
  1. Lubricant & anti-adherent
  2. Disintegrant
  3. Binder
  4. Diluent
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Lubricant & anti-adherent)
Explanation: Magnesium stearate (0.25-1%) prevents granules from sticking to punch faces and reduces friction against the die wall during ejection.

Q.49: Crosscarmellose sodium and Sodium Starch Glycolate are chemically categorized as:
  1. Superdisintegrants
  2. Glidants
  3. Surfactants
  4. Preservatives
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Superdisintegrants)
Explanation: Superdisintegrants promote rapid tablet disintegration at low concentrations (2-4%) by rapid water wicking and explosive swelling.

Q.50: Which sterilization technique is commonly known as “Cold Sterilization”?
  1. Gamma Radiation Sterilization
  2. Autoclaving
  3. Hot Air Oven
  4. Tyndallization
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Gamma Radiation Sterilization)
Explanation: Gamma irradiation (Cobalt-60) sterilizes heat-sensitive plastics, sutures, and syringes without raising thermal temperature.

MODULE 3: PHARMACEUTICAL JURISPRUDENCE & DRUG ACTS (Q.51 TO Q.75)
Q.51: Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940, Schedule M prescribes standards for:
  1. Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) and factory premises requirements
  2. Life period of drugs and storage
  3. List of prescription drugs
  4. Standards for cosmetics
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) and factory premises requirements)
Explanation: Schedule M specifies GMP requirements for buildings, plant premises, quality control laboratories, and equipment.

Q.52: Which Schedule of the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules contains the list of Prescription Drugs sold only on RMP prescription?
  1. Schedule H
  2. Schedule G
  3. Schedule X
  4. Schedule C
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Schedule H)
Explanation: Schedule H lists prescription-only drugs bearing ‘Rx’ symbol. Schedule H1 specifies restricted reserve antibiotics.

Q.53: Schedule X under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules deals with:
  1. Habit-forming Narcotic and Psychotropic substances
  2. Biological and special products
  3. Standards for ophthalmic solutions
  4. List of poisonous substances
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Habit-forming Narcotic and Psychotropic substances)
Explanation: Schedule X drugs (e.g. Ketamine, Amphetamine) require duplicate prescriptions (kept for 2 years) and ‘NRx’ red symbol labeling.

Q.54: The life period (expiry period) and storage conditions of pharmaceutical products are specified under:
  1. Schedule P
  2. Schedule M
  3. Schedule Y
  4. Schedule F
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Schedule P)
Explanation: Schedule P specifies shelf-life and storage conditions for drugs; Schedule P1 specifies pack sizes of pharmaceuticals.

Q.55: Schedule Y under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules is concerned with:
  1. Requirements and guidelines for Clinical Trials and Import/Manufacture of New Drugs
  2. Standards for surgical dressings
  3. Standards for patent medicines
  4. List of incurable diseases
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Requirements and guidelines for Clinical Trials and Import/Manufacture of New Drugs)
Explanation: Schedule Y outlines the statutory protocol, ethical review, and clinical phase data required to approve new drugs in India.

Q.56: List of diseases and ailments which a drug may NOT purport to prevent or cure is listed in:
  1. Schedule J
  2. Schedule G
  3. Schedule H
  4. Schedule K
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Schedule J)
Explanation: Schedule J lists 51 diseases (e.g. Cancer, AIDS, Diabetes, Blindness) for which advertising a cure is strictly prohibited by law.

Q.57: Drugs that must be taken under strict medical supervision and bear the symbol ‘CAUTION’ without Rx are in:
  1. Schedule G
  2. Schedule H
  3. Schedule X
  4. Schedule C
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Schedule G)
Explanation: Schedule G drugs (e.g. Metformin, Bleomycin, Glibenclamide) bear the label: ‘CAUTION: It is dangerous to take this except under medical supervision’.

Q.58: Biological and special products (Sera, Vaccines, Toxins, Injectables) are governed under:
  1. Schedule C and C1
  2. Schedule F
  3. Schedule H
  4. Schedule M
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Schedule C and C1)
Explanation: Schedule C lists injectable biologicals (sera, vaccines, insulin), while Schedule C1 lists non-parenteral biological products.

Q.59: The Central Drugs Laboratory (CDL) of India is officially situated at:
  1. Kolkata
  2. New Delhi
  3. Mumbai
  4. Kasauli
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Kolkata)
Explanation: The statutory CDL is located in Kolkata. CRI (vaccines) is at Kasauli (HP). CIPL is at Ghaziabad.

Q.60: The Pharmacy Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in the year:
  1. 1948
  2. 1940
  3. 1954
  4. 1985
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (1948)
Explanation: The Pharmacy Act was passed in March 1948 to regulate the pharmacy profession and establish PCI. D&C Act was passed in 1940.

Q.61: What is the tenure (term of office) of an elected or nominated member of the Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)?
  1. 5 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 6 years
  4. 4 years
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (5 years)
Explanation: Members of the Pharmacy Council of India hold office for 5 years from the date of nomination or election.

Q.62: Which of the following is an Ex-officio member of the Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)?
  1. Director General of Health Services (DGHS)
  2. President of Medical Council of India
  3. Union Health Minister
  4. Chairman of UGC
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Director General of Health Services (DGHS))
Explanation: Ex-officio members of PCI: (1) DGHS, (2) DCGI, and (3) Director of Central Drugs Laboratory Kolkata.

Q.63: Under the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act 1954, magic remedies include:
  1. Talismans, mantras, amulets, and charms claiming miraculous cures
  2. All Ayurvedic herbal preparations
  3. Allopathic over-the-counter medicines
  4. Homeopathic dilutions
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Talismans, mantras, amulets, and charms claiming miraculous cures)
Explanation: The Act bans advertising charms, mantras, and amulets purporting to possess miraculous powers for disease cures or sexual disorders.

Q.64: The Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 defines an ‘Adulterated Drug’ as one that:
  1. Consists in whole or in part of any filthy, putrid, or decomposed substance
  2. Is sold under the name of another drug (Spurious)
  3. Is not labelled in prescribed manner (Misbranded)
  4. Has an expired shelf life
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Consists in whole or in part of any filthy, putrid, or decomposed substance)
Explanation: Section 17A defines adulterated drugs. Section 17 defines misbranded drugs, and Section 17B defines spurious/counterfeit drugs.

Q.65: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act was originally enacted in:
  1. 1971
  2. 1985
  3. 1948
  4. 1995
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (1971)
Explanation: The MTP Act was passed in 1971 and amended in 2021 to expand legal gestation abortion thresholds up to 24 weeks.

Q.66: What is the minimum educational qualification required for registration as a Pharmacist under Pharmacy Act 1948?
  1. Diploma in Pharmacy (D.Pharm) from a PCI approved institution
  2. Bachelor of Pharmacy (B.Pharm)
  3. 12th Standard Science
  4. Master of Pharmacy (M.Pharm)
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Diploma in Pharmacy (D.Pharm) from a PCI approved institution)
Explanation: Under Section 31/32 of Pharmacy Act 1948, a recognized Diploma in Pharmacy (D.Pharm) is the statutory minimum qualification.

Q.67: Schedule F and F1 under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules deal with:
  1. Standards for Blood Bank, Vaccines and Sera
  2. Standards for Surgical Dressings (F2)
  3. Standards for Ophthalmic solutions (FF)
  4. Standards for Contraceptives (R)
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Standards for Blood Bank, Vaccines and Sera)
Explanation: Schedule F covers blood banks and biological products; F1 covers vaccines; F2 covers surgical dressings; FF covers ophthalmic drops.

Q.68: Schedule H1 was introduced in the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules in 2013 primarily to:
  1. Control antimicrobial resistance (AMR) and curb misuse of 3rd/4th generation antibiotics and psychotropics
  2. Promote export of drugs
  3. Reduce retail prices
  4. Ban veterinary products
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Control antimicrobial resistance (AMR) and curb misuse of 3rd/4th generation antibiotics and psychotropics)
Explanation: Schedule H1 contains 46 reserve antibiotics and habit-forming drugs requiring separate register records kept for 3 years.

Q.69: Under the Drug Price Control Order (DPCO), the maximum retail price (MRP) is calculated as:
  1. Ceiling Price + Local Taxes
  2. Cost of Production + 50%
  3. Wholesale Price * 2
  4. Discretionary chemist price
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Ceiling Price + Local Taxes)
Explanation: Under DPCO 2013 administered by NPPA, price to consumer = NPPA calculated Ceiling Price + Applicable Local Taxes (GST).

Q.70: The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act was enacted in:
  1. 1985
  2. 1970
  3. 1940
  4. 1990
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (1985)
Explanation: The NDPS Act (Act 61 of 1985) establishes stringent criminal penalties and controls on illicit narcotics and psychotropic trafficking.

Q.71: Drug Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) is constituted under which section of Drugs & Cosmetics Act 1940?
  1. Section 5
  2. Section 7
  3. Section 12
  4. Section 33
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Section 5)
Explanation: Section 5 provides for the constitution of DTAB to advise the Central and State Governments on technical drug regulations.

Q.72: The Chairman of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) is:
  1. Director General of Health Services (DGHS)
  2. Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
  3. Union Minister of Health
  4. Director of CDRI Lucknow
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Director General of Health Services (DGHS))
Explanation: The Director General of Health Services (DGHS), Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, is the ex-officio Chairman of DTAB.

Q.73: An application for grant or renewal of a retail drug sale license for allopathic drugs is made in Form:
  1. Form 19
  2. Form 20
  3. Form 24
  4. Form 25
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Form 19)
Explanation: Form 19 is the application form for a retail drug license. The retail license is granted on Form 20 (general) and Form 21 (biologicals).

Q.74: The first edition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) was published in:
  1. 1955
  2. 1947
  3. 1966
  4. 1985
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (1955)
Explanation: The 1st edition of IP was published in 1955 under Dr. B.N. Ghosh. The latest 9th edition was published in 2022 by IPC Ghaziabad.

Q.75: Under the Pharmacy Practice Regulations, what color coat must be worn by Registered Pharmacists on duty?
  1. White coat with PCI Registered Pharmacist identification badge
  2. Green coat
  3. Blue apron
  4. No specific uniform mandated
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (White coat with PCI Registered Pharmacist identification badge)
Explanation: Under PPR 2015, registered pharmacists must wear a clean white coat with an official badge displaying name and registration number.

MODULE 4: HOSPITAL & CLINICAL PHARMACY PRACTICE (Q.76 TO Q.90)
Q.76: As defined by the Indian Pharmacopoeia, ‘Cold’ storage temperature refers to:
  1. Between 2°C and 8°C
  2. Between 8°C and 15°C (Cool)
  3. Between 15°C and 30°C (Room temperature)
  4. Below 0°C (Freezer)
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Between 2°C and 8°C)
Explanation: Official IP terminology: Cold = 2°C to 8°C (for vaccines, insulin); Cool = 8°C to 15°C; Room Temp = 15°C to 30°C.

Q.77: Who acts as the Member Secretary of the Pharmacy and Therapeutic Committee (PTC) in a hospital?
  1. Chief Pharmacist / Hospital Pharmacist
  2. Medical Superintendent
  3. Chief Nursing Officer
  4. Hospital Administrator
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Chief Pharmacist / Hospital Pharmacist)
Explanation: A senior physician chairs the PTC, while the Chief Hospital Pharmacist acts as Member Secretary and custodian of the Formulary.

Q.78: In a medical prescription, what does the Latin abbreviation ‘stat’ stand for?
  1. Immediately (at once)
  2. As needed (pro re nata)
  3. Twice daily (bis in die)
  4. Every other day
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Immediately (at once))
Explanation: ‘stat’ stands for Latin ‘statim’ meaning immediately. ‘p.r.n.’ = pro re nata (as needed); ‘b.i.d.’ = bis in die (twice daily).

Q.79: Severe therapeutic failure due to chelation occurs when Ciprofloxacin or Tetracycline is taken with:
  1. Antacids containing Aluminium, Magnesium, or Calcium
  2. Paracetamol
  3. Pantoprazole
  4. Cetirizine
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Antacids containing Aluminium, Magnesium, or Calcium)
Explanation: Polyvalent cations (Al3+, Mg2+, Ca2+) chelate with fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines, precipitating and reducing absorption by > 80%.

Q.80: What is the recommended minimum number of pharmacists required for a 100-bed general hospital?
  1. 5 Pharmacists
  2. 3 Pharmacists
  3. 8 Pharmacists
  4. 10 Pharmacists
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (5 Pharmacists)
Explanation: Hospital staffing guidelines: Up to 50 beds = 3 pharmacists; 100 beds = 5 pharmacists; 200 beds = 8 pharmacists; 500 beds = 15 pharmacists.

Q.81: The ‘Hospital Formulary’ is a continuously updated compilation of:
  1. Approved pharmaceuticals, dosage forms, and clinical therapeutic guidelines for hospital use
  2. List of hospital staff salaries
  3. Surgical inventory only
  4. Expired stock log
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Approved pharmaceuticals, dosage forms, and clinical therapeutic guidelines for hospital use)
Explanation: The Hospital Formulary contains approved drugs and clinical protocols approved by the PTC to promote rational and cost-effective drug therapy.

Q.82: Under Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules 2016, discarded expired and cytotoxic drugs are disposed of in:
  1. Yellow colored non-chlorinated plastic bags
  2. Red colored bags
  3. Blue cardboard boxes
  4. White puncture-proof containers
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Yellow colored non-chlorinated plastic bags)
Explanation: Cytotoxic and expired pharmaceutical waste is segregated in Yellow bags for high-temperature incineration or encapsulation.

Q.83: What does the term ‘TDM’ signify in hospital clinical pharmacy practice?
  1. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
  2. Total Daily Medication
  3. Technical Dose Management
  4. Timed Drug Mechanism
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Therapeutic Drug Monitoring)
Explanation: TDM optimizes individual drug dosage by measuring plasma drug concentrations for narrow therapeutic index drugs (e.g. Digoxin, Lithium).

Q.84: A life-threatening hypertensive crisis (‘Cheese Reaction’) occurs when MAO Inhibitors are ingested with foods rich in:
  1. Tyramine
  2. Histamine
  3. Glutamine
  4. Tryptophan
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Tyramine)
Explanation: Tyramine in aged cheeses is normally destroyed by MAO in the gut. MAO inhibitors allow tyramine to enter systemic circulation and release huge norepinephrine.

Q.85: Which IV fluid is strictly CONTRAINDICATED as a diluent for Ceftriaxone injection due to precipitation?
  1. Ringer’s Lactate (RL) containing Calcium
  2. 0.9% Normal Saline
  3. 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
  4. Sterile Water for Injection
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Ringer’s Lactate (RL) containing Calcium)
Explanation: Calcium ions in Ringer’s Lactate precipitate ceftriaxone as insoluble calcium salts, risking fatal pulmonary and renal microemboli.

Q.86: What does the Latin term ‘hora somni’ (h.s.) on a prescription signify?
  1. At bedtime
  2. In the morning
  3. Every hour
  4. Before surgery
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (At bedtime)
Explanation: ‘hora somni’ (h.s.) instructs administration at bedtime. ‘ante cibos’ (a.c.) is before meals; ‘post cibos’ (p.c.) is after meals.

Q.87: In hospital inventory control, ‘VED’ analysis classifies pharmaceuticals based on their:
  1. Vital, Essential, and Desirable clinical criticality
  2. Value, Expense, and Demand
  3. Volume, Expiry, and Damage
  4. Validity, Effectiveness, and Dose
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Vital, Essential, and Desirable clinical criticality)
Explanation: VED evaluates clinical criticality: Vital (life-saving drugs), Essential (serious illness treatments), Desirable (minor symptomatic relief).

Q.88: The Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI) is nationally coordinated by:
  1. Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC Ghaziabad)
  2. AIIMS New Delhi
  3. ICMR New Delhi
  4. Pharmacy Council of India
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC Ghaziabad))
Explanation: IPC Ghaziabad acts as the National Coordinating Centre (NCC) for PvPI to monitor adverse drug reaction reporting nationwide.

Q.89: The normal therapeutic serum concentration range for Digoxin is:
  1. 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL
  2. 10 to 20 ug/mL
  3. 50 to 100 mg/dL
  4. 1 to 5 mg/L
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL)
Explanation: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range (0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL). Levels above 2.0 ng/mL precipitate severe cardiac arrhythmias and toxicity.

Q.90: Co-administration of Aspirin and Warfarin is dangerous because it leads to:
  1. Severe hemorrhage / internal bleeding risk
  2. Loss of anticoagulant effect
  3. Rapid renal failure
  4. Hypertension
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Severe hemorrhage / internal bleeding risk)
Explanation: Aspirin inhibits platelets and causes gastric erosion, while warfarin inhibits clotting factors, creating dangerous synergy for internal hemorrhage.

MODULE 5: PHARMACOGNOSY & CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY (Q.91 TO Q.100)
Q.91: Dragendorff’s reagent for chemical identification of alkaloids consists of:
  1. Potassium Bismuth Iodide solution
  2. Potassium Mercuric Iodide solution (Mayer’s)
  3. Iodine in Potassium Iodide (Wagner’s)
  4. Saturated Picric Acid solution (Hager’s)
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Potassium Bismuth Iodide solution)
Explanation: Dragendorff’s reagent produces an orange/reddish-brown precipitate with alkaloids. Mayer’s yields a cream-colored precipitate.

Q.92: The specific chemical identification test for Anthraquinone Glycosides (Senna, Aloe, Rhubarb) is:
  1. Borntrager’s Test
  2. Keller-Kiliani Test
  3. Shinoda Test
  4. Legal Test
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Borntrager’s Test)
Explanation: Borntrager’s test: hydrolyzing anthraquinone glycosides yields aglycones that produce pink/red color in the ammoniacal layer.

Q.93: Vitali-Morin reaction is a characteristic colour identification test used for:
  1. Tropane Alkaloids (Atropine, Hyoscyamine)
  2. Opium Alkaloids
  3. Cinchona Alkaloids
  4. Ergot Alkaloids
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Tropane Alkaloids (Atropine, Hyoscyamine))
Explanation: Tropane alkaloids treated with fuming nitric acid followed by alcoholic KOH produce a transient bright violet coloration.

Q.94: Which medicinal plant is the natural source of the anticancer diterpene alkaloid Paclitaxel (Taxol)?
  1. Taxus brevifolia (Pacific Yew)
  2. Catharanthus roseus (Vinca)
  3. Podophyllum peltatum
  4. Camptotheca acuminata
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Taxus brevifolia (Pacific Yew))
Explanation: Paclitaxel is obtained from the bark of Taxus brevifolia and stabilizes microtubules, blocking cell division mitosis.

Q.95: Thalleioquin test gives an emerald green colour and is specific for the identification of:
  1. Cinchona Alkaloids (Quinine & Quinidine)
  2. Rauwolfia Alkaloids
  3. Nux vomica Alkaloids
  4. Belladonna Alkaloids
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Cinchona Alkaloids (Quinine & Quinidine))
Explanation: Treating quinine solutions with bromine water followed by excess ammonia generates emerald-green thalleioquin.

Q.96: Deficiency of which vitamin leads to Megaloblastic Anemia and Neural Tube Defects during pregnancy?
  1. Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid)
  2. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
  3. Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid)
  4. Vitamin D (Calciferol)
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid))
Explanation: Folic acid is essential for DNA synthesis in erythroblasts. Maternal deficiency leads to spina bifida and neural tube defects.

Q.97: What is the normal fasting plasma glucose reference range in a healthy non-diabetic adult?
  1. 70 to 99 mg/dL
  2. 126 to 180 mg/dL
  3. 40 to 60 mg/dL
  4. 150 to 200 mg/dL
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (70 to 99 mg/dL)
Explanation: ADA criteria: Normal fasting glucose is 70 to 99 mg/dL. Impaired fasting glucose is 100-125 mg/dL; Diabetes is >= 126 mg/dL.

Q.98: Glycated Hemoglobin (HbA1c) diagnostic threshold for confirming Diabetes Mellitus is:
  1. >= 6.5%
  2. >= 5.0%
  3. >= 8.0%
  4. >= 4.5%
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (>= 6.5%)
Explanation: HbA1c >= 6.5% confirms diabetes mellitus, reflecting average blood glucose concentration over the prior 2 to 3 months.

Q.99: Which diagnostic cardiac enzyme marker is the most sensitive and specific for acute Myocardial Infarction?
  1. Cardiac Troponin I (cTnI) / Troponin T (cTnT)
  2. Serum Glutamic-Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT)
  3. Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)
  4. Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (Cardiac Troponin I (cTnI) / Troponin T (cTnT))
Explanation: Cardiac troponins I and T rise within 3-4 hours of myocardial injury, peak at 24 hours, and stay elevated up to 10-14 days.

Q.100: Normal serum Creatinine reference range in healthy adult males is approximately:
  1. 0.7 to 1.3 mg/dL
  2. 3.5 to 5.0 mg/dL
  3. 10 to 20 mg/dL
  4. 0.1 to 0.3 mg/dL
✔ Correct Answer: Option A (0.7 to 1.3 mg/dL)
Explanation: Normal adult serum creatinine is 0.7 to 1.3 mg/dL in males and 0.6 to 1.1 mg/dL in females, serving as a primary marker of kidney function.

RECOMMENDED OFFICIAL EXAMINATION & STUDY RESOURCES
Download Previous Year Papers (RRB, AIIMS, ESIC) Download Solved Question Papers »
All-India Govt Pharmacist Master Syllabus View Full Exam Syllabus & Recommended Books »
AIIMS CRE Pharmacist Grade II Blueprint View 100-MCQ AIIMS Blueprint »
Railway RRB Pharmacist Recruitment Guide View 70:30 RRB CBT Blueprint »
Official Home Portal SarkariPharma.com

Resume Tips for Government Pharmacist Exam Aspirants

  • Structure your academic qualifications clearly (Diploma / Degree in Pharmacy) with Board/University, year of passing, and overall percentage.
  • Explicitly state your Registered Pharmacist Registration Number and State Pharmacy Council name right under your contact information.
  • Detail clinical internships or dispensing experience including daily prescription volume handled and emergency pharmacy rotation duties.
  • Highlight technical competencies in inventory control, cold chain maintenance, and automated drug dispensing software.

Common Technical Interview Questions & Rationale

  • Question 1: Why is Paracetamol considered safer than Aspirin in viral fevers like Dengue?
    Guidance: Explain that Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase (COX-1), worsening thrombocytopenia and bleeding risk in Dengue, and can cause Reye’s syndrome in children, whereas Paracetamol does not impair platelet aggregation.
  • Question 2: What actions do you take when a cold-chain refrigerator temperature exceeds 8°C?
    Guidance: Describe immediate quarantine of biologicals, recording the peak temperature reached and duration of excursion, checking the backup power supply, notifying the Medical Superintendent, and consulting manufacturer temperature-stability logs before discarding.
  • Question 3: How do you identify a counterfeit or spurious medicine during visual inspection?
    Guidance: Highlight checking packaging security hologram, batch number alignment, expiry date printing clarity, intact tamper-evident seals, uniform tablet coloration (absence of mottling or crumbling), and clarity in injectable ampoules.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Q1: Are these 100 MCQs sufficient for Railway RRB and AIIMS pharmacist exams?
A: These 100 MCQs represent the highest-yield repeated concepts across the last 10 years of all-India recruitment exams. Master these rationales thoroughly alongside our comprehensive Master Syllabus guide.

Q2: Which pharmacy subject carries the highest question weightage in CBT exams?
A: Pharmacology & Toxicology (25%-28%) and Pharmaceutics (22%-25%) together account for over 50% of domain questions in almost every Central and State recruitment test.

Q3: Can I download previous year question papers with answer keys on Sarkari Pharma?
A: Yes! Visit our official Previous Year Papers section to download RRB, AIIMS, ESIC, and State NHM shift-wise papers with solved keys.


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