| Paper Name : | ESIC Pharmacist Allopathic Official Previous Year Solved Question Paper with CBT Answer Key & Detailed Clinical Explanations |
| Conducting Body : | Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), Ministry of Labour & Employment, Govt. of India |
| Post Cadre : | Pharmacist (Allopathic / Ayurvedic) — 7th CPC Pay Matrix Level-5 |
| Exam Format : | Computer Based Test (CBT) | 125 Total Questions (100 Technical Pharmacy + 25 General Aptitude) |
| Verification : | Verified by Sarkari Pharma Editorial Board • Sarkari Pharma Editorial Board |
The Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) conducts an All-India Computer Based Test (CBT) for the selection of Pharmacists in ESIC Model Hospitals and Dispensaries across India. To help pharmacy graduates prepare effectively, we have compiled the official previous years’ solved questions with step-by-step rationales, pharmacology drug mechanisms, and exact answer keys according to the official ESIC testing syllabus.
Practicing authentic ESIC questions enables candidates to understand recurring core topics such as autonomic pharmacology, antibiotic mechanisms, schedules under Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940, sterilization biological indicators, dosage calculations, and clinical pharmacy.
ESIC Pharmacist CBT Exam Pattern & Mark Distribution
| Section | Subjects Covered | No. of Questions | Max Marks | Duration |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Section A (Core) | Technical Professional Knowledge (Pharmaceutics, Pharmacology, Pharmacognosy, Jurisprudence, Biochemistry, Clinical Pharmacy) | 100 Questions | 100 Marks | 120 Minutes (2 Hours) |
| Section B | General Awareness & Health Schemes | 10 Questions | 10 Marks | |
| Section C | General Intelligence & Reasoning | 10 Questions | 10 Marks | |
| Section D | Arithmetic Ability & Basic Numeracy | 05 Questions | 05 Marks | |
| Grand Total : | 125 Questions | 125 Marks | -0.25 Negative Marking | |
ESIC Pharmacist Official CBT Solved Questions & Detailed Explanations
Q1. Which of the following specific antidotes is administered to reverse the anticoagulant effect of unfractionated Heparin overdose?
- (A) Phytomenadione (Vitamin K1)
- (B) Protamine Sulfate
- (C) Deferoxamine
- (D) Idarucizumab
Detailed Solution: Protamine sulfate is a strongly basic, positively charged polycationic protein derived from fish sperm. It binds ionically to strongly acidic, negatively charged Heparin molecules to form a stable, inactive neutral salt complex devoid of anticoagulant activity. 1 mg of protamine sulfate neutralizes approximately 100 USP units of heparin. Vitamin K1 reverses Warfarin, while Deferoxamine is an iron chelator.
Q2. According to the Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS), drugs exhibiting Low Solubility and High Permeability are classified under:
- (A) Class I
- (B) Class II
- (C) Class III
- (D) Class IV
Detailed Solution: Under the BCS classification: Class I = High Solubility, High Permeability (e.g. Paracetamol); Class II = Low Solubility, High Permeability (e.g. Carbamazepine, Ketoconazole, Ibuprofen); Class III = High Solubility, Low Permeability (e.g. Cimetidine); Class IV = Low Solubility, Low Permeability (e.g. Hydrochlorothiazide). For BCS Class II drugs, in vivo dissolution is the rate-limiting step for absorption.
Q3. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945, what is the mandatory retention period for prescriptions containing Schedule X psychotropic substances?
- (A) 1 year
- (B) 2 years
- (C) 3 years
- (D) 5 years
Detailed Solution: As per the statutory provisions of Schedule X under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945, every registered pharmacist dispensing Schedule X drugs must prepare a duplicate copy of the prescription and preserve all records and prescription slips for a minimum period of 2 years from the date of dispensing for inspection by drug inspectors.
Q4. The Keller-Kiliani chemical identification test is specifically utilized in pharmacognosy to detect:
- (A) Anthraquinone glycosides
- (B) Deoxy sugar (Digitoxose) in cardiac glycosides
- (C) Tropane alkaloids
- (D) Flavonoid aglycones
Detailed Solution: The Keller-Kiliani test employs glacial acetic acid containing a trace of ferric chloride, followed by concentrated sulfuric acid. A reddish-brown ring appears at the junction of the two liquid layers, and the upper layer turns bluish-green, confirming the presence of 2-deoxysugar (digitoxose) characteristic of Digitalis purpurea.
Q5. “Gray Baby Syndrome” is a potentially fatal adverse drug reaction caused by the accumulation of which antibiotic in premature neonates?
- (A) Tetracycline
- (B) Chloramphenicol
- (C) Gentamicin
- (D) Ciprofloxacin
Detailed Solution: Premature and full-term neonates have immature hepatic metabolic enzymes, specifically lacking adequate levels of UDP-glucuronyl transferase, as well as reduced renal glomerular filtration. This prevents hepatic glucuronidation of Chloramphenicol, leading to toxic plasma drug levels, cardiovascular collapse, cyanosis (ashen-gray color), hypothermia, and death.
Q6. Which biological spore indicator is officially validated to verify sterilization efficiency in moist heat sterilization (Autoclaving)?
- (A) Bacillus subtilis var. niger
- (B) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
- (C) Clostridium tetani
- (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Detailed Solution: Geobacillus stearothermophilus (formerly Bacillus stearothermophilus) spores exhibit extreme thermal resistance to moist steam heat (D-value at 121°C is 1.5–3.0 minutes). Thus, its spores are used as the pharmacopoeial biological indicator for autoclaving. Conversely, Bacillus atrophaeus (Bacillus subtilis) is used for dry heat and ethylene oxide gas sterilization.
Q7. What is the immediate first-line drug of choice and recommended route of administration for managing acute anaphylactic shock in a hospital setting?
- (A) Hydrocortisone Intravenous (IV)
- (B) Adrenaline (Epinephrine) 1:1,000 Intramuscular (IM)
- (C) Diphenhydramine Oral
- (D) Salbutamol Nebulization
Detailed Solution: Adrenaline 1:1000 (0.5 mg in adults) injected into the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh (vastus lateralis) via Intramuscular (IM) route is the life-saving first-line emergency drug. It acts on alpha-1 receptors (vasoconstriction to reverse hypotension and laryngeal edema), beta-1 receptors (positive inotropy and chronotropy), and beta-2 receptors (bronchodilation and inhibition of mast cell mediator release).
Q8. Under the Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Act 1948, what is the current monthly wage ceiling for eligible insured workers?
- (A) ₹15,000 per month
- (B) ₹21,000 per month
- (C) ₹25,000 per month
- (D) ₹30,000 per month
Detailed Solution: As notified by the Ministry of Labour & Employment, the statutory monthly wage limit for coverage under the ESI Act is ₹21,000 per month (w.e.f. 01.01.2017). For persons with disabilities (PwD), the wage ceiling limit is enhanced to ₹25,000 per month.
Q9. Which anti-tubercular drug causes ocular toxicity characterized by optic neuritis, decreased visual acuity, and loss of red-green color discrimination?
- (A) Isoniazid
- (B) Rifampicin
- (C) Ethambutol
- (D) Pyrazinamide
Detailed Solution: Ethambutol interferes with arabinosyl transferase, impairing mycobacterial cell wall synthesis. Its primary dose-dependent adverse reaction is retrobulbar optic neuritis, leading to central scotomas and red-green visual color confusion. Patients must undergo routine Snellen eye and color vision evaluations during treatment.
Q10. How many parts of 20% dextrose solution must be blended with 5% dextrose solution to formulate 600 mL of 10% dextrose solution using the Alligation method?
- (A) 200 mL of 20% and 400 mL of 5%
- (B) 300 mL of 20% and 300 mL of 5%
- (C) 150 mL of 20% and 450 mL of 5%
- (D) 250 mL of 20% and 350 mL of 5%
Detailed Solution: By Alligation alternate:
Higher concentration (20%) — Target (10%) = 5 parts of 20% dextrose
Target (10%) — Lower concentration (5%) = 10 parts of 5% dextrose
Ratio of 20% : 5% = 5 : 10 = 1 : 2 (Total 3 parts).
Volume of 20% = (1/3) × 600 mL = 200 mL.
Volume of 5% = (2/3) × 600 mL = 400 mL.
Q11. What is the molecular target and mechanism of action of Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs) like Omeprazole in suppressing gastric acid secretion?
- (A) Competitive antagonism at histamine H2 receptors on parietal cells
- (B) Irreversible covalent inhibition of parietal cell H+/K+-ATPase pump via disulfide bond formation
- (C) Stimulation of gastric mucosal prostaglandin EP3 receptors
- (D) Blockade of gastrin CCK-B receptors
Detailed Solution: Omeprazole is a prodrug that accumulates in the acidic secretory canaliculi of parietal cells (pH < 2), where it undergoes acid-catalyzed conversion into an active tetracyclic sulfenamide. The sulfenamide forms a stable, covalent disulfide bond with cysteines of the luminal alpha-subunit of the H+/K+-ATPase enzyme (the gastric proton pump), irreversibly extinguishing both basal and stimulated gastric acid secretion until new pumps are synthesized (half-life of acid suppression ≈ 24–48 hours).
Q12. In antiplatelet pharmacotherapy, low-dose Aspirin (75–150 mg/day) selectively inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly acetylating which enzyme?
- (A) Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) serine-529 residue
- (B) Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2)
- (C) Phosphodiesterase-3
- (D) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
Detailed Solution: Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) permanently transfers its acetyl group to the Serine-529 residue located in the catalytic channel of platelet COX-1, irreversibly abolishing the synthesis of prothrombotic Thromboxane A2 (TXA2). Because platelets lack a nucleus and cannot synthesize new enzyme proteins, this blockade persists for the entire circulatory lifespan of the platelet (7 to 10 days).
Q13. In cleanroom parenteral production facilities, High-Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filters are defined as retaining at least what percentage of airborne particles sized 0.3 micrometers?
- (A) 90.00%
- (B) 95.50%
- (C) 99.97%
- (D) 100.00%
Detailed Solution: Under pharmacopoeial and GMP standards, a true HEPA filter must demonstrate a minimum particle collection efficiency of 99.97% for the most penetrating particle size (MPPS) of 0.3 micrometers (μm). Ultra-Low Penetration Air (ULPA) filters achieve 99.999% efficiency for particles ≥ 0.12 μm.
Q14. Which Schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945 outlines the detailed requirements and guidelines for Clinical Trials, import, and manufacture of New Drugs in India?
- (A) Schedule X
- (B) Schedule Y
- (C) Schedule U
- (D) Schedule T
Detailed Solution: Schedule Y details the regulatory protocols for Clinical Trials (Phase I to IV), preclinical toxicological animal studies, investigator brochure documentation, Institutional Ethics Committee approvals, and safety data submissions required by the CDSCO for approving and importing New Drugs in India.
Q15. Which Class-III antiarrhythmic agent is clinically associated with adverse effects including Pulmonary Fibrosis, Corneal Microdeposits, Blue-Gray skin discoloration, and Thyroid Dysfunction (both hypo and hyper)?
- (A) Lidocaine
- (B) Flecainide
- (C) Amiodarone
- (D) Adenosine
Detailed Solution: Amiodarone is an iodinated benzofuran derivative (contains ~37% iodine by molecular weight). Its massive tissue accumulation and prolonged elimination half-life (~50–60 days) produce extensive multi-organ toxicities: lethal interstitial pulmonary fibrosis, corneal microdeposits in nearly all patients, photosensitive slate-blue skin discoloration (argyria-like), peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, and both hypo- and hyperthyroidism (due to structural iodine and inhibition of peripheral T4 to T3 conversion).
Q16. What is the mandatory storage temperature range specified for Whole Human Blood in hospital transfusion blood bank refrigerators?
- (A) -20°C to -10°C
- (B) +2°C to +6°C
- (C) +15°C to +25°C
- (D) 0°C strictly
Detailed Solution: Whole human blood and packed red blood cells (RBCs) collected in CPDA-1 preservative solution must be maintained at +2°C to +6°C. Storing at <2°C causes red blood cell freezing and catastrophic intravascular hemolysis upon transfusion, while temperatures >6°C allow rapid bacterial proliferation and accelerated erythrocyte glycolytic exhaustion. Platelets, by contrast, are stored at 20°C to 24°C under continuous agitation.
Q17. Which official biological indicator containing resistant bacterial endospores is utilized to validate the sterilization efficacy of Autoclaves (Moist Heat Sterilization)?
- (A) Bacillus pumilus
- (B) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
- (C) Bacillus subtilis
- (D) Clostridium sporogenes
Detailed Solution: Geobacillus stearothermophilus (spores ATCC 7953) is the official biological indicator for Moist Heat (Autoclave) sterilization due to its exceptional resistance to saturated steam at 121°C (D121 value ≈ 1.5–2.0 minutes). For Dry Heat and Ethylene Oxide gas sterilization, the indicator organism is Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly B. subtilis). For ionizing Radiation sterilization, it is Bacillus pumilus.
Q18. What is the specific competitive pharmacological antidote utilized to counteract life-threatening toxicity caused by Methanol and Ethylene Glycol poisoning?
- (A) Fomepizole (or Ethanol)
- (B) Pralidoxime
- (C) Physostigmine
- (D) Dimercaprol
Detailed Solution: Methanol is metabolized by Alcohol Dehydrogenase (ADH) into toxic Formaldehyde and Formic acid, which causes severe metabolic acidosis and retinal blindness. Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole) is a competitive, high-affinity inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase that blocks this biotransformation, allowing intact methanol to be safely excreted. In the absence of fomepizole, pharmaceutical grade Ethanol IV/oral is administered because ADH exhibits 10–20 times higher affinity for ethanol than methanol.
Q19. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945, Schedule P1 defines:
- (A) Life period of drugs
- (B) Pack sizes of retail drugs and medicines
- (C) Standards for cosmetics
- (D) Standards for ophthalmic preparations
Detailed Solution: Schedule P1 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules prescribes the statutory Retail Pack Sizes of various drugs (e.g., standard bottle volumes for liquid syrups, specific blister counts for tablets and capsules) to prevent deceptive or irrational trade packaging. Schedule P specifies the shelf-life period and storage conditions.
Q20. Concomitant administration of oral Tetracycline capsules with multivalent cations like Calcium (milk, antacids), Magnesium, or Iron causes marked therapeutic failure because:
- (A) Cations accelerate hepatic glucuronidation of tetracycline
- (B) Insoluble non-absorbable coordination chelate complexes are formed in the GI tract
- (C) Cations precipitate gastric hydrochloric acid destruction of tetracyclines
- (D) Cations induce renal tubular secretion
Detailed Solution: Tetracyclines possess an amphoteric naphthacene carboxamide ring system with multiple phenolic and enolic hydroxyl groups that readily form stable, water-insoluble coordination complexes (chelates) with divalent and trivalent metal cations (Ca2+, Mg2+, Al3+, Fe2+, Fe3+). These large chelates cannot cross the intestinal lipophilic brush border membrane, drastically reducing antibiotic bioavailability by 50% to 90%. Patients must space tetracycline doses at least 2 to 3 hours apart from dairy products and antacids.
Q21. What is the approximate total circulating blood volume in a healthy 70 kg adult human?
- (A) 2 to 3 Liters
- (B) 5 to 5.5 Liters (approx. 7–8% of body weight)
- (C) 8 to 10 Liters
- (D) 12 Liters
Detailed Solution: Total circulating blood volume in a healthy 70 kg adult accounts for 7% to 8% of body weight, equating to approximately 5.0 to 5.5 Liters.
Q22. Which specific antidote is administered intravenously to neutralize acute unfractionated Heparin overdose?
- (A) Vitamin K1 (Phytomenadione)
- (B) Protamine Sulfate
- (C) Aminocaproic acid
- (D) Idarucizumab
Detailed Solution: Protamine Sulfate is a polycationic peptide that ionically binds strongly acidic heparin, forming an inactive stable salt complex. 1 mg neutralizes ~100 units of heparin.
Q23. Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules 1945, Schedule C and C1 govern:
- (A) List of non-prescription OTC products
- (B) Biological and special products (Parenteral & Non-parenteral) subject to special licensing provisions
- (C) Standards for disinfectant fluids
- (D) List of banned fixed-dose combinations
Detailed Solution: Schedule C lists parenteral biological products (sera, vaccines, insulin, injectables). Schedule C1 lists non-parenteral biological products (oral antibiotics, digitalis, fish liver oils).
Q24. In which year was the First Edition of the official Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) published by the Government of India?
- (A) 1948
- (B) 1950
- (C) 1955
- (D) 1966
Detailed Solution: The First Edition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia was published in 1955 under the chairmanship of Dr. B. N. Ghosh.
Q25. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobials like Ciprofloxacin exert their bactericidal action by inhibiting which bacterial enzymes?
- (A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
- (B) DNA Gyrase (Topoisomerase II) and Topoisomerase IV
- (C) 30S ribosomal subunit
- (D) Dihydrofolate reductase
Detailed Solution: Fluoroquinolones trap bacterial DNA Gyrase (Topoisomerase II) and Topoisomerase IV, inducing double-stranded DNA breaks and triggering rapid bactericidal cell death.
Q26. Which essential water-soluble vitamin contains Cobalt in its organometallic corrin ring structure and is known chemically as Cyanocobalamin?
- (A) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
- (B) Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
- (C) Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin)
- (D) Folic acid
Detailed Solution: Vitamin B12 contains cobalt and is essential for red blood cell maturation and myelin integrity. Deficiency causes Megaloblastic Pernicious Anemia.
Q27. The official biological indicator organism utilized for validating the efficacy of Dry Heat Sterilization (Hot Air Oven) is:
- (A) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
- (B) Bacillus atrophaeus (Bacillus subtilis var. niger)
- (C) Bacillus pumilus
- (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Detailed Solution: Bacillus atrophaeus spores (ATCC 9372) are used for Dry Heat sterilization at 160°C.
Q28. Ranitidine and Famotidine inhibit gastric hydrochloric acid secretion by acting as:
- (A) Irreversible proton pump blockers
- (B) Competitive Histamine H2-receptor antagonists on parietal cells
- (C) Muscarinic M1 antagonists
- (D) Gastrin receptor agonists
Detailed Solution: H2 receptor blockers competitively displace histamine from H2 receptors on parietal cells, suppressing gastric acid output.
Q29. Quinine, an antimalarial alkaloid isolated from Cinchona bark, belongs to which chemical class?
- (A) Tropane Alkaloids
- (B) Quinoline Alkaloids
- (C) Isoquinoline Alkaloids
- (D) Steroidal Alkaloids
Detailed Solution: Quinine contains a Quinoline ring system fused to a quinuclidine ring, isolated from Cinchona bark (Rubiaceae).
Q30. Which cellular organelle is universally known as the ‘Powerhouse of the Cell’ due to ATP generation via oxidative phosphorylation?
- (A) Endoplasmic Reticulum
- (B) Golgi Apparatus
- (C) Mitochondria
- (D) Lysosome
Detailed Solution: Mitochondria generate over 90% of cellular ATP via the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.
Q31. Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules 1945, all records and duplicate prescriptions relating to Schedule X drugs must be preserved for:
- (A) 6 Months
- (B) 1 Year
- (C) 2 Years
- (D) 5 Years
Detailed Solution: Retail records and duplicate prescriptions for Schedule X drugs must be preserved for 2 years.
Q32. Ototoxicity characterized by vestibular ataxia and high-frequency hearing loss during Streptomycin therapy is due to damage to which cranial nerve?
- (A) 2nd Cranial Nerve
- (B) 5th Cranial Nerve
- (C) 8th Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear)
- (D) 10th Cranial Nerve
Detailed Solution: Streptomycin selectively destroys sensory hair cells in the cochlea and vestibular apparatus, causing 8th Cranial Nerve ototoxicity.
Q33. What is the specific life-saving antidote for acute Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) hepatotoxicity?
- (A) N-Acetylcysteine (NAC)
- (B) Naloxone
- (C) Atropine
- (D) Pralidoxime
Detailed Solution: N-Acetylcysteine (NAC) neutralizes the toxic metabolite NAPQI, preventing fatal hepatic necrosis.
Q34. What is the standard normal physiological resting blood pressure in a healthy adult human?
- (A) 80/120 mmHg
- (B) 120/80 mmHg
- (C) 140/90 mmHg
- (D) 100/60 mmHg
Detailed Solution: Standard normal arterial blood pressure is defined as systolic ≤ 120 mmHg and diastolic ≤ 80 mmHg (120/80 mmHg).
Q35. Which drug is the immediate first-line agent of choice for the rapid relief of acute Angina Pectoris chest pain?
- (A) Oral Propranolol
- (B) Sublingual Nitroglycerin (0.5 mg)
- (C) Oral Amlodipine
- (D) Atorvastatin
Detailed Solution: Sublingual Nitroglycerin releases nitric oxide (NO) causing venodilation, which lowers cardiac preload and oxygen demand within 1–2 minutes.
Q36. Which route of drug administration provides instantaneous onset of action and 100% systemic bioavailability?
- (A) Oral route
- (B) Intramuscular route
- (C) Intravenous (IV) route
- (D) Subcutaneous route
Detailed Solution: The Intravenous (IV) route places drug directly into systemic circulation with 100% bioavailability (F = 1.0).
Q37. Which cation is the predominant electrolyte in extracellular fluid (ECF) responsible for plasma osmolality?
- (A) Potassium (K+)
- (B) Sodium (Na+)
- (C) Calcium (Ca2+)
- (D) Magnesium (Mg2+)
Detailed Solution: Sodium (Na+) is the dominant extracellular cation (135–145 mEq/L in plasma), controlling plasma osmolality and fluid balance.
Q38. Scurvy, characterized by spongy bleeding gums, petechiae, and impaired wound healing, is caused by nutritional deficiency of:
- (A) Vitamin A
- (B) Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
- (C) Vitamin D
- (D) Vitamin K
Detailed Solution: Vitamin C deficiency prevents post-translational hydroxylation of proline/lysine in collagen, causing capillary fragility and Scurvy.
Q39. The Keller-Kiliani chemical identification test is specific for detecting:
- (A) Cyanogenetic Glycosides
- (B) Deoxy-sugars (Digitoxose) in Cardiac Glycosides
- (C) Anthraquinone Glycosides
- (D) Flavonoid Glycosides
Detailed Solution: The Keller-Kiliani test confirms 2-deoxysugars like Digitoxose in Digitalis cardiac glycosides.
Q40. In tablet compression processing, the partial or complete detachment of the top or bottom cap of a tablet is termed:
- (A) Capping
- (B) Mottling
- (C) Sticking
- (D) Chipping
Detailed Solution: Capping is separation of the top or bottom crown of a compressed tablet, caused by entrapped air.
Q41. The trivalent DPT vaccine confers active immunization against which three infectious diseases?
- (A) Diphtheria, Polio, Tetanus
- (B) Diphtheria, Pertussis (Whooping cough), Tetanus
- (C) Dengue, Pneumonia, Typhoid
- (D) Dysentery, Plague, Tuberculosis
Detailed Solution: DPT vaccine protects against Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus. Stored at +2°C to +8°C.
Q42. Schedule M of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945 mandates:
- (A) Good Laboratory Practices
- (B) Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) and factory premises requirements for pharmaceuticals
- (C) Standards for surgical dressings
- (D) Standards for patent and proprietary medicines
Detailed Solution: Schedule M sets statutory GMP requirements for drug production premises, sterile suites, and quality systems.
Q43. What is the physiological pH of normal human lachrymal (tear) fluid?
- (A) 4.5 to 5.0
- (B) 6.0 to 6.5
- (C) 7.4 (approx. 7.2 to 7.5)
- (D) 8.5 to 9.0
Detailed Solution: Human tears have a normal pH of 7.4. Ophthalmic drops are buffered near 7.4 to avoid discomfort.
Q44. Morphine is chemically categorized under which specific group of Opium alkaloids?
- (A) Benzylisoquinoline group
- (B) Phenanthrene group
- (C) Tropane group
- (D) Indole group
Detailed Solution: Morphine and Codeine contain a fused Phenanthrene ring system.
Q45. Which human organ is the primary site of xenobiotic and drug metabolism?
- (A) Spleen
- (B) Liver
- (C) Kidney
- (D) Lungs
Detailed Solution: The Liver contains Phase-I and Phase-II enzymes that biotransform lipophilic xenobiotics into hydrophilic excretable molecules.
Q46. Acetazolamide acts as a diuretic and anti-glaucoma medication by selectively inhibiting which enzyme?
- (A) Carbonic Anhydrase
- (B) Xanthine Oxidase
- (C) Monoamine Oxidase
- (D) Angiotensin Converting Enzyme
Detailed Solution: Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase, reducing bicarbonate reabsorption in renal tubules and aqueous humor secretion in the eye.
Q47. According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia, what is the maximum permissible disintegration time limit for standard Uncoated Compressed Tablets?
- (A) 5 Minutes
- (B) 15 Minutes
- (C) 30 Minutes
- (D) 60 Minutes
Detailed Solution: Uncoated compressed tablets must disintegrate within 15 minutes in water at 37°C ± 2°C.
Q48. What is the emergency first-line drug of choice and dilution for acute Anaphylactic Shock?
- (A) Adrenaline 1:1000 Intramuscular (0.5 mg)
- (B) Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV only
- (C) Atropine 1 mg IV
- (D) Dopamine 5 mcg/kg/min
Detailed Solution: Adrenaline 1:1000 IM (0.5 mg) is the life-saving treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock.
Q49. Which electrolyte disorder markedly aggravates Digitalis toxicity, triggering severe cardiac arrhythmias?
- (A) Hyperkalemia
- (B) Hypokalemia
- (C) Hypernatremia
- (D) Hyponatremia alone
Detailed Solution: Hypokalemia removes competition for Digoxin binding at myocardial Na+/K+-ATPase pumps, precipitating digitalis arrhythmias.
Q50. On the Griffin HLB scale, surfactants with an HLB value between 3 and 6 function as:
- (A) Solubilizing agents
- (B) Water-in-Oil (W/O) emulsifying agents
- (C) Oil-in-Water (O/W) emulsifying agents
- (D) Detergents
Detailed Solution: Lipophilic surfactants with HLB 3 to 6 (e.g., Sorbitan esters / Spans) form stable Water-in-Oil (W/O) emulsions.
ESIC Pharmacist Useful Preparation & Official Links
| Download ESIC Pharmacist Solved Paper PDF | View Master Question Papers Hub » |
| Railway RRB Pharmacist Solved CBT Paper | Click Here |
| AIIMS CRE Pharmacist Solved CBT Paper | Click Here |
| Top 100 Repeated Govt Pharmacist MCQs | Practice Online |
| ESIC Official Website Portal | esic.gov.in |
| Daily Verified Job Alerts WhatsApp Channel | Join Official WhatsApp Channel |
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) — ESIC Pharmacist Solved Papers:
Q1: Is there negative marking in the ESIC Pharmacist CBT examination?
Answer: Yes. ESIC prescribes 0.25 marks (1/4th) deduction for each incorrect objective answer. Unattempted questions carry zero penalties.
Q2: Are both D.Pharm and B.Pharm eligible for ESIC Pharmacist recruitment?
Answer: Yes. Candidates holding a Diploma in Pharmacy (D.Pharm) or Degree in Pharmacy (B.Pharm) from a PCI recognized institution and registered as a Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act 1948 are eligible to apply.
Q3: What is the passing qualifying standard for the ESIC Computer Based Test?
Answer: Qualifying cutoff marks in ESIC CBT are 45% for UR, 40% for OBC/EWS, 35% for SC/ST/Ex-Servicemen, and 30% for PwD categories in both technical and non-technical sections separately.