| Paper Name : | RRB Railway Pharmacist (CEN 05/2026 & 02/2019) Official Previous Year Solved Question Paper with Answer Key & Detailed Clinical Solutions |
| Post Update Date : | 24 September 2026 | 10:45 AM |
| Short Information : |
Railway Recruitment Boards (RRB) conducts Computer Based Test (CBT) for the recruitment of Pharmacist Entry Grade (7th CPC Pay Matrix Level-5). Practicing authentic previous year exam question papers is the single most effective strategy to understand Railway exam question patterns, high-weightage topics, and 1/3rd negative marking traps. This solved paper provides real questions asked in past RRB Paramedical Pharmacist exams across Professional Pharmacy Ability, General Science, Arithmetic, General Intelligence, and General Awareness with verified answer keys and detailed explanations.
Verified by Sarkari Pharma Editorial Board • Sarkari Pharma Editorial Board |
| RRB Railway Pharmacist CBT Exam Pattern & Section-Wise Weightage | |||
|---|---|---|---|
| Subject Section | Total Questions | Total Marks | Exam Duration |
| Professional Ability (Pharmacy Discipline) | 70 Questions | 70 Marks | 90 Minutes (120 Mins for PwBD) |
| General Science (Physics, Chemistry, Life Sciences) | 10 Questions | 10 Marks | |
| General Arithmetic & Reasoning | 10 Questions | 10 Marks | |
| General Awareness & Current Affairs | 10 Questions | 10 Marks | |
| Grand Total | 100 Questions | 100 Marks | Negative: 1/3rd Mark |
Q1. Which of the following drugs is regarded as the specific antidote of choice for Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) toxicity?
View Answer & Explanation
Clinical Explanation: Paracetamol overdose depletes hepatic glutathione, causing accumulation of the toxic metabolite NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine), which causes hepatic necrosis. N-Acetylcysteine acts as a glutathione precursor and replenishes hepatic glutathione stores, neutralizing NAPQI. Naloxone is for opioid overdose, Flumazenil is for benzodiazepines, and Deferoxamine is for iron toxicity.
Q2. As per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940, standards for Ophthalmic Preparations (Eye drops and Eye ointments) are prescribed under which Schedule?
View Answer & Explanation
Explanation: Schedule FF specifically lays down standards for ophthalmic preparations. Schedule M deals with Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP), Schedule P defines life periods (expiry dates) of drugs, and Schedule H covers prescription drugs.
Q3. The major active alkaloid responsible for the antimalarial efficacy of Cinchona bark is:
View Answer & Explanation
Explanation: Quinine is a quinoline alkaloid obtained from the dried bark of Cinchona calisaya or Cinchona succirubra (Family: Rubiaceae). It acts as a blood schizonticide against all Plasmodium species. Quinidine (its optical isomer) is used as a Class IA antiarrhythmic.
Q4. Which of the following ACE inhibitors is NOT a prodrug and is excreted primarily unchanged by the kidneys?
View Answer & Explanation
Explanation: Most ACE inhibitors (Enalapril -> Enalaprilat, Ramipril -> Ramiprilat) are ester prodrugs requiring hepatic de-esterification for activation. Captopril and Lisinopril are the notable exceptions; they are active per se (not prodrugs).
Q5. ‘Grey Baby Syndrome’ is a well-known, potentially fatal toxic adverse effect associated with which antimicrobial agent?
View Answer & Explanation
Explanation: In neonates and premature infants, the hepatic glucuronyl transferase enzyme system is immature, and renal excretion of unconjugated drug is deficient. High plasma levels of Chloramphenicol cause vomiting, hypothermia, ashen grey skin discoloration, cardiovascular collapse, and death (Grey Baby Syndrome).
Q6. What is the emergency life-saving drug of choice for acute severe Anaphylactic Shock?
- (A) Hydrocortisone IV
- (B) Adrenaline (Epinephrine) 1:1000 Intramuscular
- (C) Chlorpheniramine Maleate IM
- (D) Dopamine Infusion
Detailed Solution: Intramuscular Adrenaline (Epinephrine) administered at a dilution of 1:1000 (0.5 mg in adults, into the anterolateral mid-thigh) is the definitive first-line medication for anaphylaxis. Its alpha-1 agonist action reverses peripheral vasodilation and mucosal angioedema, beta-1 stimulation restores cardiac contractility, and beta-2 stimulation rapidly relieves bronchospasm while inhibiting mast-cell mediator release. Corticosteroids and antihistamines are second-line adjuncts.
Q7. By definition, what is the absolute Bioavailability (F) of any therapeutic pharmaceutical agent administered via the Intravenous (IV) route?
- (A) 50%
- (B) 75%
- (C) 100% (F = 1.0)
- (D) Dependent on hepatic clearance
Detailed Solution: Absolute bioavailability (F) is the fraction of an administered active drug reaching unchanged systemic circulation. When injected intravenously, the drug bypasses gastrointestinal absorption barriers and hepatic first-pass metabolism entirely, placing 100% of the dose directly into systemic circulation. Hence, IV bioavailability is defined as F = 1.0 (100%) and serves as the reference standard.
Q8. Which electrolyte imbalance drastically increases myocardial sensitivity to Digitalis, triggering life-threatening Digoxin arrhythmias?
- (A) Hyperkalemia
- (B) Hypokalemia
- (C) Hyponatremia
- (D) Hypercalcemia alone
Detailed Solution: Potassium and Digoxin compete for binding to the same dephosphorylated alpha-subunit of the Na+/K+-ATPase pump. In Hypokalemia (low serum potassium, common with loop/thiazide diuretics), reduced extracellular potassium allows greater binding of Digoxin to myocardial ATPase pumps, markedly exaggerating drug toxicity and triggering ventricular ectopics and arrhythmias.
Q9. Opium is the dried milky latex obtained by incision from the unripe capsules of which botanical species?
- (A) Cannabis sativa
- (B) Papaver somniferum
- (C) Erythroxylum coca
- (D) Atropa belladonna
Detailed Solution: Opium is the air-dried milky exudate obtained by incising the unripe capsule of Papaver somniferum (family Papaveraceae). It contains over 25 isoquinoline alkaloids, categorized into phenanthrene derivatives (Morphine 10–12%, Codeine 0.5–2%, Thebaine 0.2%) and benzylisoquinoline derivatives (Papaverine 1%, Noscapine 5–8%).
Q10. Which polymeric film-forming agent is widely employed in pharmaceutical technology for the formulation of Enteric-Coated Tablets?
- (A) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC)
- (B) Cellulose Acetate Phthalate (CAP)
- (C) Ethyl cellulose
- (D) Polyvinylpyrrolidone (PVP)
Detailed Solution: Cellulose Acetate Phthalate (CAP), Polyvinyl Acetate Phthalate (PVAP), and methacrylic acid copolymers (Eudragit L and S) contain free carboxylic acid groups that remain un-ionized and water-insoluble in acidic gastric pH (<3.5). In alkaline intestinal pH (>5.5–6.0), the phthalate carboxyl groups ionize into soluble carboxylate salts, rapidly dissolving the film to release the drug in the duodenum.
Q11. Insulin is chemically a peptide hormone containing how many total amino acids arranged across two distinct polypeptide chains?
- (A) 21 Amino acids
- (B) 30 Amino acids
- (C) 51 Amino acids (Chain A: 21, Chain B: 30)
- (D) 84 Amino acids
Detailed Solution: Human insulin has a molecular weight of 5,808 Daltons and consists of 51 amino acids organized in two polypeptide chains: Chain A (21 amino acids) and Chain B (30 amino acids), interconnected by two interchain disulfide bonds (A7-B7 and A20-B19) and one intrachain disulfide bond within Chain A (A6-A11).
Q12. The Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) was constituted for the first time in India under the Pharmacy Act 1948 in which year?
- (A) 1948
- (B) 1949
- (C) 1950
- (D) 1954
Detailed Solution: While the Pharmacy Act was enacted on 4th March 1948, the Central Council (Pharmacy Council of India – PCI) was officially constituted by the Central Government under Section 3 of the Act in 1949. The PCI regulates pharmacy education standards, approves institutions, and enforces the Education Regulations (ER) across India.
Q13. ‘Cinchonism’ is a characteristic syndrome of toxicity presenting with tinnitus, vertigo, impaired hearing, headache, and blurred vision, caused by:
- (A) Salicylates
- (B) Quinine (or Quinidine)
- (C) Streptomycin
- (D) Atropine
Detailed Solution: Cinchonism is the toxic constellation of auditory symptoms (tinnitus, high-tone hearing impairment), vestibular disturbance (dizziness, nausea), ocular symptoms (photophobia, scotomata), and headache resulting from acute or chronic overdose of Cinchona alkaloids, principally Quinine and its dextrorotatory isomer Quinidine.
Q14. What is the normal physiological Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) in a healthy young adult human?
- (A) 50 mL/min
- (B) 120 to 125 mL/min (approx. 180 Liters/day)
- (C) 500 mL/min
- (D) 1000 mL/min
Detailed Solution: In a standard 70 kg adult, renal blood flow is ~1200 mL/min, with renal plasma flow ~650 mL/min. The normal GFR is 120 to 125 mL/min (or 180 L per 24 hours), of which >99% of filtered water and electrolytes are reabsorbed by the renal tubules, resulting in ~1.5 Liters of daily urine output. Inulin and Creatinine clearance are clinical markers of GFR.
Q15. Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules 1945, Schedule L-1 specifically prescribes the requirements and guidelines for:
- (A) Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) and premises for analysis
- (B) Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) for cosmetics
- (C) Standards for surgical dressings
- (D) List of poisonous substances under Rule 65
Detailed Solution: Schedule L-1 mandates Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) and requirements of premises and equipment for pharmaceutical quality control testing laboratories. Schedule M prescribes GMP for drugs, Schedule M-II for cosmetics, and Schedule M-III for medical devices.
Q16. Which of the following is a potent high-ceiling (loop) diuretic acting at the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
- (A) Hydrochlorothiazide
- (B) Furosemide
- (C) Acetazolamide
- (D) Spironolactone
Detailed Solution: Furosemide (Lasix) reversibly inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl- symporter in the luminal membrane of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By preventing electrolyte reabsorption, it abolishes the hypertonicity of the renal medulla, inducing massive natriuresis and diuresis. Hydrochlorothiazide acts on the distal convoluted tubule (Na+/Cl- cotransporter), Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase in proximal tubules, and Spironolactone antagonizes aldosterone.
Q17. Which of the following is a Fat-Soluble Vitamin essential for the post-translational hepatic gamma-carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X?
- (A) Vitamin C
- (B) Vitamin B6
- (C) Vitamin K
- (D) Vitamin B12
Detailed Solution: The fat-soluble vitamins are A, D, E, and K. Vitamin K (Phytomenadione) serves as an essential cofactor for gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, which converts glutamate residues into gamma-carboxyglutamate (Gla) on blood coagulation factors II (Prothrombin), VII, IX, X, and proteins C and S, enabling calcium binding on phospholipid membranes during hemostasis.
Q18. What is the standard official test organism designated by the Indian Pharmacopoeia for the microbiological assay of Streptomycin?
- (A) Bacillus subtilis
- (B) Staphylococcus aureus
- (C) Escherichia coli
- (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Detailed Solution: In pharmacopoeial cylinder-plate antibiotic assays, Bacillus subtilis is the official test microorganism specified for Streptomycin. For Penicillin, the test organism is Staphylococcus aureus (ATCC 29737); for Chloramphenicol, it is Escherichia coli; and for Nystatin/Amphotericin B, it is Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
Q19. Type-1 Hypersensitivity (Immediate / Anaphylactic) immunological reactions are primarily mediated by which antibody isotype?
- (A) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
- (B) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
- (C) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
- (D) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
Detailed Solution: Type-1 Hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE antibodies bound via their Fc region to high-affinity Fc-epsilon-RI receptors on tissue mast cells and circulating basophils. Antigen cross-linking of adjacent IgE antibodies triggers rapid degranulation, releasing preformed mediators (Histamine, Tryptase) and newly synthesized mediators (Leukotrienes C4/D4/E4, Platelet Activating Factor).
Q20. What is the fundamental chemical nature and colorant added to Calamine powder IP to yield its distinctive pink soothing appearance?
- (A) Basic zinc carbonate with copper oxide
- (B) Zinc Oxide with approx. 0.5% Ferric Oxide (Fe2O3)
- (C) Titanium dioxide with carmine red
- (D) Precipitated sulfur with calamine clay
Detailed Solution: Calamine IP is basic Zinc Oxide (ZnO) containing a small proportion (approximately 0.5%) of Ferric Oxide (Fe2O3), which imparts its characteristic pinkish hue. Calamine exhibits mild astringent, antipruritic, and skin-protective properties, commonly formulated into Calamine Lotion IP with bentonite, zinc oxide, and glycerin.
Q21. Which of the following is an active metabolite of the prodrug Enalapril that exerts angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibition?
- (A) Enalaprilat
- (B) Lisinopril
- (C) Captopril
- (D) Ramiprilat
Detailed Solution: Enalapril is an ethyl ester prodrug devoid of significant intrinsic pharmacological activity. Upon oral absorption, it undergoes hepatic esterase cleavage to form the potent dicarboxylic acid active metabolite Enalaprilat. Enalaprilat itself has very poor oral bioavailability due to high polarity and is available only for intravenous administration in hypertensive emergencies.
Q22. The term ‘Therapeutic Index’ (TI) of a drug represents which ratio in preclinical pharmacology?
- (A) ED50 / LD50
- (B) LD50 / ED50
- (C) TD50 / LD50
- (D) Cmax / MIC
Detailed Solution: Therapeutic Index (TI) = LD50 / ED50 (lethal dose in 50% population divided by median effective dose in 50% population). A higher TI signifies a safer margin of clinical safety (e.g., Penicillins), while low TI drugs (e.g., Digoxin, Lithium, Warfarin, Theophylline) require vigilant Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM).
Q23. Which schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 prescribes the regulatory standards and requirements for Surgical Dressings?
- (A) Schedule F2
- (B) Schedule F3
- (C) Schedule F1
- (D) Schedule FF
Detailed Solution: Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules:
- Schedule F2: Standards for Surgical Dressings (absorbent cotton, gauze, bandages).
- Schedule F3: Standards for Sterilized Umbilical Tapes.
- Schedule F1: Standards for bacterial vaccines, viral vaccines, antisera, and diagnostic antigens.
- Schedule FF: Standards for Ophthalmic Preparations.
Q24. Presystemic (first-pass) drug metabolism occurs predominantly in which organ prior to entering the systemic circulation?
- (A) Spleen
- (B) Liver (and intestinal mucosa)
- (C) Lungs
- (D) Kidney
Detailed Solution: Orally ingested drugs are absorbed through the mesenteric veins into the hepatic portal circulation, passing directly through the Liver where hepatic enzymes (CYP450) biotransform a fraction of the drug before it reaches the systemic circulation (First-Pass Effect).
Q25. What is the specific pharmacological antidote for Coumarin / Warfarin-induced severe hypoprothrombinemia and bleeding?
- (A) Protamine sulfate
- (B) Vitamin K1 (Phytomenadione)
- (C) Deferoxamine
- (D) Atropine
Detailed Solution: Warfarin acts as a competitive antagonist of vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKORC1). Administration of exogenous Vitamin K1 (Phytomenadione) bypasses the blocked enzyme, restoring active reduced vitamin K hydroquinone to restart hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
Q26. Which route of drug administration is clinically preferred for the immediate relief of acute angina pectoris with Nitroglycerin?
- (A) Oral swallowing
- (B) Sublingual route
- (C) Subcutaneous injection
- (D) Rectal route
Detailed Solution: Sublingual administration allows the highly lipophilic nitroglycerin to diffuse rapidly across the thin sublingual oral mucosa directly into the internal jugular veins and superior vena cava, producing rapid venodilation within 1–2 minutes while bypassing 90% hepatic first-pass degradation.
Q27. What is the clinical diagnostic normal reference range for Fasting Blood Sugar (FBS) in a healthy individual?
- (A) 40 to 60 mg/dL
- (B) 70 to 100 mg/dL
- (C) 130 to 160 mg/dL
- (D) 180 to 220 mg/dL
Detailed Solution: Normal fasting plasma glucose is 70 to 99 mg/dL (<100 mg/dL). Fasting levels of 100–125 mg/dL indicate Impaired Fasting Glucose (prediabetes), and values ≥ 126 mg/dL on two occasions confirm Diabetes Mellitus.
Q28. Aspirin suppresses platelet thrombus formation by irreversibly acetylating which enzyme for the entire lifespan of circulating platelets?
- (A) Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1)
- (B) Lipoxygenase (LOX)
- (C) Phospholipase A2
- (D) Thrombin
Detailed Solution: Aspirin irreversibly acetylates Serine-529 of platelet COX-1, shutting down Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) generation. Because anucleate platelets cannot synthesize new enzyme, this platelet inhibition lasts 7 to 10 days.
Q29. What is the major cation present in the Intracellular Fluid (ICF) compartment of human cells?
- (A) Sodium (Na+)
- (B) Potassium (K+)
- (C) Calcium (Ca2+)
- (D) Chloride (Cl-)
Detailed Solution: Potassium (K+) is the dominant intracellular cation (~140–150 mEq/L inside cells, compared to 3.5–5.0 mEq/L in plasma), while Sodium (Na+) is the principal extracellular cation (~135–145 mEq/L in ECF).
Q30. Scurvy, characterized by petechial hemorrhages, spongy bleeding gums, and delayed wound healing, is caused by nutritional deficit of:
- (A) Vitamin A
- (B) Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
- (C) Vitamin D
- (D) Vitamin B12
Detailed Solution: Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) is essential for hydroxylating proline and lysine residues during collagen biosynthesis. Deficiency produces defective collagen, causing capillary wall fragility and Scurvy.
Q31. Which medication is recognized clinically as the first-line intravenous agent of choice for terminating acute Status Epilepticus?
- (A) Phenytoin
- (B) Lorazepam (or Diazepam IV)
- (C) Phenobarbital
- (D) Carbamazepine
Detailed Solution: IV Lorazepam (0.1 mg/kg) or Diazepam IV is the first-line emergency drug of choice for status epilepticus, acting as a positive allosteric modulator at GABA-A receptors to rapidly abort continuous epileptic seizure discharges.
Q32. Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules 1945, all records and duplicate prescription copies relating to Schedule X drugs must be preserved for:
- (A) 6 Months
- (B) 1 Year
- (C) 2 Years
- (D) 5 Years
Detailed Solution: Retail records and duplicate prescriptions for Schedule X psychotropic and habit-forming substances must be preserved for 2 years from the date of the transaction for inspection by Drug Inspectors.
Q33. What is the specific life-saving antidote for acute Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) hepatotoxic overdose?
- (A) N-Acetylcysteine (NAC)
- (B) Naloxone
- (C) Atropine
- (D) Pralidoxime
Detailed Solution: N-Acetylcysteine (NAC) acts as a glutathione surrogate and precursor, binding and detoxifying the electrophilic toxic metabolite NAPQI to prevent centrilobular hepatic necrosis.
Q34. The physiological pH of normal human arterial blood is tightly regulated between:
- (A) 6.80 to 7.00
- (B) 7.35 to 7.45
- (C) 7.80 to 8.00
- (D) 8.20 to 8.40
Detailed Solution: Arterial blood pH is strictly maintained between 7.35 and 7.45 by carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer systems, pulmonary ventilation of CO2, and renal excretion of H+ and reabsorption of HCO3-.
Q35. Which water-soluble vitamin contains Cobalt in its core corrin ring structure and is known as Cyanocobalamin?
- (A) Vitamin B1
- (B) Vitamin B6
- (C) Vitamin B12
- (D) Niacin
Detailed Solution: Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin) is a cobalt-containing vitamin essential for DNA synthesis and myelin sheath maintenance. Lack of gastric intrinsic factor leads to Pernicious Anemia.
Q36. Which cytoplasmic cellular organelle is universally termed the ‘Powerhouse of the Cell’?
- (A) Ribosome
- (B) Mitochondria
- (C) Endoplasmic Reticulum
- (D) Nucleus
Detailed Solution: Mitochondria generate over 90% of cellular ATP via oxidative phosphorylation and the Krebs citric acid cycle.
Q37. The Keller-Kiliani test is an official pharmacognostical identity test specific for detecting:
- (A) Saponins
- (B) Digitoxose (2-deoxysugars) in Cardiac Glycosides
- (C) Anthraquinones
- (D) Tropane alkaloids
Detailed Solution: The Keller-Kiliani test employs glacial acetic acid, FeCl3, and concentrated H2SO4 to yield a reddish-brown interface ring and green-blue upper layer, confirming Digitoxose in Digitalis.
Q38. The trivalent DPT vaccine confers active immunity against which three pathogens?
- (A) Dengue, Polio, Tetanus
- (B) Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
- (C) Diphtheria, Pneumonia, Typhoid
- (D) Dysentery, Plague, Tuberculosis
Detailed Solution: DPT vaccine protects against Diphtheria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae), Pertussis (Bordetella pertussis), and Tetanus (Clostridium tetani). Stored strictly at +2°C to +8°C.
Q39. Schedule M under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945 defines statutory requirements for:
- (A) Clinical Trials
- (B) Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) and factory premises requirements
- (C) Standards for surgical dressings
- (D) Ophthalmic solutions
Detailed Solution: Schedule M prescribes GMP requirements for pharmaceutical production premises, HVAC cleanrooms, water systems, and quality assurance.
Q40. The separation of the top or bottom crown of a compressed tablet from the main cylinder body is called:
- (A) Capping
- (B) Mottling
- (C) Sticking
- (D) Picking
Detailed Solution: Capping is the complete or partial separation of the top/bottom cap of a tablet, caused primarily by air entrapment within the granule mass during high-speed compression.
Q41. What is the specific pharmacological antidote regimen administered for acute Organophosphorus pesticide poisoning?
- (A) Naloxone alone
- (B) Atropine Sulfate + Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
- (C) Flumazenil
- (D) Deferoxamine
Detailed Solution: Organophosphates phosphorylate and inhibit acetylcholinesterase, leading to cholinergic crisis. Atropine blocks muscarinic receptors (dries bronchial secretions and reverses bradycardia), while Pralidoxime (2-PAM) reactivates phosphorylated acetylcholinesterase at nicotinic neuromuscular junctions before enzyme aging occurs.
Q42. As per the Indian Pharmacopoeia, Enteric-Coated Tablets must withstand simulated gastric fluid (0.1 N HCl) for how long without disintegrating or cracking?
- (A) 30 Minutes
- (B) 60 Minutes
- (C) 120 Minutes (2 Hours)
- (D) 180 Minutes
Detailed Solution: Enteric-coated tablets must show no evidence of disintegration or cracking in 0.1 N HCl at 37°C ± 2°C for 120 minutes (2 hours), and then completely disintegrate within 60 minutes in phosphate buffer pH 6.8.
Q43. Which pancreatic peptide hormone is secreted by beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans to stimulate glucose uptake and lower blood sugar?
- (A) Glucagon
- (B) Insulin
- (C) Somatostatin
- (D) Epinephrine
Detailed Solution: Insulin is secreted by pancreatic beta cells in response to elevated blood glucose, stimulating GLUT4 translocation in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue to lower blood glucose and promote glycogen synthesis.
Q44. ‘Cinchonism’, presenting with tinnitus, headache, and visual disturbance, is a toxic syndrome caused by:
- (A) Morphine
- (B) Quinine (or Quinidine)
- (C) Reserpine
- (D) Atropine
Detailed Solution: Cinchonism is the classic toxicity syndrome of Cinchona alkaloids, principally Quinine and Quinidine, characterized by tinnitus, reversible hearing loss, headache, dizziness, and visual disturbance.
Q45. Streptomycin ototoxicity and vestibular dysfunction are caused by damage to which cranial nerve?
- (A) 2nd Cranial Nerve
- (B) 5th Cranial Nerve
- (C) 8th Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear)
- (D) 10th Cranial Nerve
Detailed Solution: Aminoglycoside antibiotics damage sensory hair cells of the organ of Corti and vestibular labyrinth, causing irreversible 8th Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear nerve) toxicity.
Q46. Schedule H1 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945 includes a statutory list of how many restricted drugs?
- (A) 24 Drugs
- (B) 46 Drugs
- (C) 54 Drugs
- (D) 72 Drugs
Detailed Solution: Schedule H1 contains 46 drugs (broad-spectrum cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, anti-TB drugs, and habit-forming sedatives), requiring dedicated register retention for 3 years.
Q47. Which blood group is known as the ‘Universal Recipient’ for red blood cell transfusions?
- (A) O Negative
- (B) AB Positive (AB+)
- (C) A Positive
- (D) B Positive
Detailed Solution: AB Positive individuals express A, B, and Rh(D) antigens and have no circulating ABO or Rh antibodies, allowing safe transfusion of any ABO/Rh red blood cell unit.
Q48. Morphine and Codeine alkaloids isolated from Opium are chemically:
- (A) Benzylisoquinoline derivatives
- (B) Phenanthrene derivatives
- (C) Indole derivatives
- (D) Tropane derivatives
Detailed Solution: Morphine, Codeine, and Thebaine contain a fused Phenanthrene ring system. Papaverine and Noscapine are benzylisoquinoline derivatives.
Q49. The Latin prescription abbreviation ‘b.i.d.’ directs the medication to be administered:
- (A) Once daily
- (B) Twice a day (Bis in die)
- (C) Three times a day
- (D) At bedtime
Detailed Solution: b.i.d. stands for Bis in die (“Twice a day”). Omni die (o.d.) is once daily; Ter in die (t.i.d.) is three times daily.
Q50. Under Indian Pharmacopoeia standards, what is the maximum permissible disintegration time limit for Hard Gelatin Capsules?
- (A) 15 Minutes
- (B) 30 Minutes
- (C) 45 Minutes
- (D) 60 Minutes
Detailed Solution: Hard Gelatin Capsules must disintegrate within 30 minutes in water at 37°C ± 2°C. Soft gelatin capsules allow up to 60 minutes.
Q51. What is the standard official test microorganism used in the pharmacopoeial microbiological assay of Penicillin?
- (A) Bacillus subtilis
- (B) Staphylococcus aureus
- (C) Escherichia coli
- (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Detailed Solution: In cylinder-plate assays, Staphylococcus aureus (ATCC 29737) is the official organism for Penicillin. Bacillus subtilis is used for Streptomycin.
Q52. Reserpine is an active antihypertensive alkaloid isolated from the roots of which medicinal plant?
- (A) Atropa belladonna
- (B) Rauwolfia serpentina (Sarpagandha)
- (C) Digitalis purpurea
- (D) Ephedra sinica
Detailed Solution: Reserpine is an indole alkaloid isolated from Rauwolfia serpentina (family Apocynaceae). It blocks VMAT-2 to deplete catecholamines.
Q53. In which year was the First Edition of the official Indian Pharmacopoeia published?
- (A) 1948
- (B) 1955
- (C) 1966
- (D) 1985
Detailed Solution: The First Edition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia was published in 1955 under Dr. B. N. Ghosh.
Q54. The branch of pharmaceutical science that deals with the calculation of appropriate drug doses is termed:
- (A) Pharmacokinetics
- (B) Posology
- (C) Pharmacognosy
- (D) Toxicology
Detailed Solution: Posology (from Greek posos meaning how much) is the science of calculating drug doses based on age, body weight, surface area, and kidney function (Young’s, Dilling’s, Clark’s rules).
Q55. Which cephalosporin antibiotic is clinically considered the parenteral drug of choice for treating severe multi-drug resistant Typhoid Fever (Enteric Fever)?
- (A) Cephalexin
- (B) Ceftriaxone IV
- (C) Cefazolin
- (D) Cefadroxil
Detailed Solution: Ceftriaxone IV (third-generation cephalosporin) is the first-line drug of choice for severe typhoid fever caused by Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi.
Q56. Schedule N of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945 details:
- (A) List of minimum equipment and apparatus for the efficient running of a Pharmacy
- (B) Standards for ophthalmic preparations
- (C) Life period of antibiotics
- (D) Clinical trial guidelines
Detailed Solution: Schedule N prescribes the statutory list of equipment, balances, measures, and reference books required to operate a licensed retail pharmacy.
Q57. Which high-ceiling diuretic acts on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle by inhibiting Na+/K+/2Cl- symporters?
- (A) Hydrochlorothiazide
- (B) Furosemide
- (C) Spironolactone
- (D) Acetazolamide
Detailed Solution: Furosemide inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop, producing potent natriuresis and diuresis.
Q58. What is the normal physiological adult Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?
- (A) 50 mL/min
- (B) 120 to 125 mL/min (approx. 180 Liters/day)
- (C) 300 mL/min
- (D) 500 mL/min
Detailed Solution: Normal GFR in a healthy adult is 120 to 125 mL/min (~180 L/24 hr), yielding ~1.5 Liters of daily urine output.
Q59. The official biological indicator organism used to validate Moist Heat (Autoclave) Sterilization is:
- (A) Bacillus pumilus
- (B) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
- (C) Bacillus subtilis
- (D) Clostridium tetani
Detailed Solution: Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores (ATCC 7953) are the official biological indicator for moist heat steam sterilization at 121°C.
Q60. In neonates, deficient UDP-glucuronyl transferase enzyme leads to fatal accumulation of which antibiotic causing ‘Gray Baby Syndrome’?
- (A) Tetracycline
- (B) Chloramphenicol
- (C) Gentamicin
- (D) Vancomycin
Detailed Solution: Chloramphenicol toxicity in newborns produces cardiovascular collapse and gray cyanosis (Gray Baby Syndrome) due to immature hepatic UDP-glucuronyl transferase.
Q61. Official Calamine IP powder is chemically basic Zinc Oxide (ZnO) containing approximately what percentage of Ferric Oxide (Fe2O3)?
- (A) 0.1%
- (B) 0.5%
- (C) 2.5%
- (D) 5.0%
Detailed Solution: Calamine IP contains basic Zinc Oxide with approximately 0.5% Ferric Oxide (Fe2O3), imparting its soothing pink color.
Q62. The Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) was first constituted under the Pharmacy Act 1948 in which year?
- (A) 1948
- (B) 1949
- (C) 1952
- (D) 1955
Detailed Solution: The Central Council (PCI) was officially constituted by the Central Government in 1949.
Q63. Which drug is the specific competitive antagonist indicated to reverse Benzodiazepine sedation?
- (A) Naloxone
- (B) Flumazenil
- (C) Atropine
- (D) Neostigmine
Detailed Solution: Flumazenil competitively blocks the allosteric benzodiazepine binding site on GABA-A receptors, reversing CNS depression.
Q64. Type-1 Hypersensitivity (Anaphylactic) reactions are primarily mediated by which immunoglobulin?
- (A) IgG
- (B) IgM
- (C) IgE
- (D) IgA
Detailed Solution: IgE antibodies bind to high-affinity Fc-epsilon receptors on mast cells and basophils, triggering immediate degranulation upon antigen cross-linking.
Q65. Ergot alkaloids (Ergotamine, Ergometrine) isolated from Claviceps purpurea contain which basic heterocyclic ring system?
- (A) Tropane ring
- (B) Indole ring (Ergoline nucleus)
- (C) Quinoline ring
- (D) Imidazole ring
Detailed Solution: Ergot alkaloids contain an indole nucleus as part of the tetracyclic ergoline ring system, derived biosynthetically from L-tryptophan.
Q66. Atropa belladonna and Hyoscyamus niger belong to which botanical family?
- (A) Solanaceae
- (B) Apocynaceae
- (C) Rubiaceae
- (D) Umbelliferae
Detailed Solution: Belladonna, Datura, and Henbane belong to the Solanaceae family and are major sources of tropane alkaloids.
Q67. Schedule Y under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945 sets guidelines for:
- (A) Clinical Trials and import of new drugs
- (B) Patent and proprietary medicines
- (C) Packing sizes
- (D) Poisonous substances
Detailed Solution: Schedule Y establishes requirements for preclinical toxicological studies and human Clinical Trials (Phases I–IV) for importing and manufacturing new drugs in India.
Q68. What is the standard normal physiological resting blood pressure in a healthy young adult?
- (A) 80/120 mmHg
- (B) 120/80 mmHg
- (C) 140/90 mmHg
- (D) 100/60 mmHg
Detailed Solution: Normal adult resting blood pressure is defined as systolic ≤ 120 mmHg and diastolic ≤ 80 mmHg (120/80 mmHg).
Q69. Surfactants possessing a Griffin HLB value of 8 to 16 are classified as:
- (A) Antifoaming agents
- (B) W/O emulsifiers
- (C) O/W emulsifying agents
- (D) Insoluble lubricants
Detailed Solution: Surfactants with HLB 8 to 16 (e.g., Tweens/Polysorbates) are hydrophilic and form stable Oil-in-Water (O/W) emulsions.
Q70. What is the fundamental rate-limiting enzyme inhibited by Statins (Atorvastatin) in endogenous hepatic cholesterol biosynthesis?
- (A) Squalene synthase
- (B) HMG-CoA Reductase
- (C) Lipoprotein lipase
- (D) LCAT
Detailed Solution: Statins competitively inhibit HMG-CoA Reductase, blocking the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate, up-regulating hepatic LDL receptors and clearing atherogenic blood cholesterol.
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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) — RRB Pharmacist Solved Papers:
Q1. Is there negative marking in the RRB Railway Pharmacist Computer Based Test?
Answer: Yes. RRB strictly implements 1/3rd negative marking. For every wrong answer, 0.33 marks will be deducted from your total score. Unanswered questions do not attract any deduction.
Q2. How many questions in RRB Pharmacist CBT are from the Pharmacy domain?
Answer: Exactly 70 questions out of 100 are directly based on the Professional Pharmacy syllabus (Pharmacology, Pharmaceutics, Pharmacognosy, Jurisprudence, Clinical & Hospital Pharmacy). The remaining 30 questions cover General Science (10), Arithmetic & Reasoning (10), and General Awareness (10).
Q3. Are D.Pharm candidates eligible to crack RRB Railway Pharmacist?
Answer: Yes. As per official Railway recruitment notifications, both Diploma in Pharmacy (D.Pharm) and Bachelor of Pharmacy (B.Pharm) candidates registered under the Pharmacy Act 1948 are eligible to appear and compete for the 7th CPC Level-5 posts.