| Paper Name : | DSSSB Pharmacist Official Previous Year Solved Question Paper with CBT Answer Key & Technical Solutions |
| Conducting Body : | Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board (DSSSB, Govt. of NCT of Delhi) |
| Target Cadre : | Pharmacist (Health & Family Welfare Dept / MCD / NDMC) — Post Code 802/24 & Past Cycles |
| Exam Mode : | Online Computer Based Test (CBT) • Bilingual (Hindi & English) |
| Total Marks & Duration : | 200 Questions | 200 Marks | 2 Hours (120 Minutes) | Negative Marking: 0.25 Mark |
| Official Portal : | dsssb.delhi.gov.in |
About DSSSB Pharmacist Previous Year Solved Question Paper: Download CBT Solved Paper with Official Answer Key & Explanations
Candidates preparing for the DSSSB Pharmacist CBT Examination (Post Code 802/24 and upcoming Delhi state health department recruitments) require a structured analysis of authentic previous year questions. The DSSSB pharmacist test evaluates candidates across a comprehensive 200-mark paper divided equally between Section A (General Aptitude) and Section B (Discipline-Specific Pharmacy Domain).
Below is the authentic solved question paper featuring high-yield technical pharmacy questions directly asked in DSSSB CBT shifts, complete with official answer keys, reference pharmacopoeial standards, and clinical rationales.
| Section | Subject / Discipline | Questions | Total Marks |
|---|---|---|---|
| Section A (General) | General Awareness & Current Affairs | 20 | 20 Marks |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability | 20 | 20 Marks | |
| Arithmetical & Numerical Ability | 20 | 20 Marks | |
| Test of Hindi Language & Comprehension | 20 | 20 Marks | |
| Test of English Language & Comprehension | 20 | 20 Marks | |
| Section B (Technical) | Core Pharmacy Subject Domain (Pharmacology, Pharmaceutics, Pharmacognosy, Jurisprudence, Hospital Pharmacy) | 100 | 100 Marks |
| Total Comprehensive Paper Weightage | 200 | 200 Marks (120 Mins) | |
Q1. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945, which Schedule prescribes the standards for patent or proprietary medicines with respect to permissible limits of alcohol and vitamins?
- (A) Schedule V
- (B) Schedule P
- (C) Schedule M
- (D) Schedule X
Detailed Solution: Schedule V of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945 outlines the specific standards for patent or proprietary medicines, including mandatory standards for multivitamins, minerals, enzymes, and alcohol contents in tonics. Schedule P deals with the life period (expiry dates) and storage conditions of drugs. Schedule M specifies Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP), and Schedule X governs psychotropic and habit-forming substances.
Q2. Which of the following ACE inhibitors is NOT a prodrug and is active in its parent administered form?
- (A) Enalapril
- (B) Ramipril
- (C) Captopril
- (D) Perindopril
Detailed Solution: Almost all Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are prodrugs requiring hepatic de-esterification to become active diacids (e.g., Enalapril to Enalaprilat, Ramipril to Ramiprilat). The two primary exceptions that are active as administered parent drugs are Captopril and Lisinopril. Captopril possesses an active sulfhydryl group that directly coordinates with the zinc ion in the active site of the ACE enzyme.
Q3. What is the fundamental mechanism of action of Cardiac Glycosides like Digoxin in managing congestive heart failure?
- (A) Activation of Beta-1 adrenergic receptors
- (B) Selective inhibition of membrane-bound Na+/K+-ATPase pump
- (C) Blockade of L-type voltage-gated calcium channels
- (D) Inhibition of Phosphodiesterase-3 (PDE-3) enzyme
Detailed Solution: Digoxin reversibly binds to and inhibits the extracellular alpha subunit of the sarcolemmal Na+/K+-ATPase pump. This increases intracellular sodium concentration, which in turn reduces the extrusion of calcium by the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger (NCX). The resulting accumulation of intracellular cytosolic calcium enhances myocardial sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium loading, producing a positive inotropic effect (increased cardiac contractile force).
Q4. In tablet manufacturing defects, the partial or complete separation of the top or bottom crowns of a tablet from the main body is known as:
- (A) Capping
- (B) Lamination
- (C) Mottling
- (D) Picking
Detailed Solution: Capping is the partial or complete separation of the top or bottom crown of a tablet from the main cylindrical body during compression or ejection, predominantly caused by air entrapment within the granule mass, excessive fines, or worn punch tips. Lamination refers to the separation of a tablet into two or more distinct horizontal layers. Mottling is unequal distribution of color on a tablet surface.
Q5. As per the Pharmacy Act 1948, what is the total number of members elected by the registered pharmacists among themselves to the State Pharmacy Council?
- (A) 4 members
- (B) 5 members
- (C) 6 members
- (D) 7 members
Detailed Solution: Under Section 19(a) of the Pharmacy Act 1948, the State Pharmacy Council constitution mandates 6 members elected from amongst themselves by registered pharmacists residing within the state. In addition, 5 members are nominated by the State Government, 1 member elected by the Medical Council of the State, and 3 ex-officio members (Chief Administrative Medical Officer, Officer-in-charge of Drugs Control, and Government Analyst).
Q6. Which diagnostic test is internationally recognized as the gold standard for the laboratory evaluation of Pyrogens in parenteral pharmaceuticals?
- (A) Limulus Amebocyte Lysate (LAL) Test
- (B) Rabbit Pyrogen Test
- (C) ELISA Test
- (D) Membrane Filtration Test
Detailed Solution: The classical in-vivo Rabbit Pyrogen Test measures the febrile (body temperature) rise in healthy mature rabbits after intravenous injection of a sterile drug solution, making it capable of detecting both bacterial endotoxins and non-endotoxin pyrogens. The in-vitro LAL Test utilizes amoebocyte lysate from the horseshoe crab (Limulus polyphemus) and specifically detects gram-negative bacterial endotoxins with high sensitivity.
Q7. Which of the following is the specific antidote for acute Acetaminophen (Paracetamol) hepatotoxicity poisoning?
- (A) N-Acetylcysteine (NAC)
- (B) Naloxone
- (C) Flumazenil
- (D) Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
Detailed Solution: In paracetamol overdose, endogenous hepatic glutathione reserves are exhausted by the toxic electrophilic intermediate metabolite NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine). N-Acetylcysteine (NAC) acts as a glutathione precursor and synthetic sulfhydryl donor, directly binding to and neutralizing NAPQI to prevent centrilobular hepatic necrosis. Naloxone reverses opioids, Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, and Pralidoxime reactivates acetylcholinesterase in organophosphate poisoning.
Q8. Ergot alkaloids obtained from the dried sclerotium of Claviceps purpurea belong to which botanical chemical class?
- (A) Indole Alkaloids
- (B) Tropane Alkaloids
- (C) Quinoline Alkaloids
- (D) Isoquinoline Alkaloids
Detailed Solution: Ergot alkaloids (ergotamine, ergometrine) are derived biosynthetically from L-tryptophan and lysergic acid, containing a characteristic fused tetracyclic ergoline nucleus with an indole ring system. Tropane alkaloids are exemplified by Atropine and Hyoscyamine (Solanaceae), Quinoline by Quinine (Cinchona), and Isoquinoline by Morphine, Codeine, and Papaverine (Opium).
Q9. Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules 1945, prescriptions for Schedule X psychotropic substances must be prepared in how many duplicate copies by the registered medical practitioner?
- (A) Single copy only
- (B) Duplicate (2 copies)
- (C) Triplicate (3 copies)
- (D) Quadruplicate (4 copies)
Detailed Solution: Under Rule 65 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, prescriptions for Schedule X drugs (e.g., Amphetamine, Methylphenidate, Secobarbital) must be issued in duplicate. One copy is retained by the dispensing retail pharmacist for a minimum of 2 years for drug regulatory inspection, while the other copy is retained by the patient. Furthermore, Schedule X drugs must be stored under lock and key in an approved cupboard.
Q10. The First Edition of the official Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) was published in which year, and under whose chairmanship?
- (A) 1948 under Dr. Ram Nath Chopra
- (B) 1955 under Dr. B. N. Ghosh
- (C) 1966 under Dr. B. Mukerji
- (D) 1985 under Dr. Nityanand
Detailed Solution: The official First Edition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia was published in 1955 under the chairmanship of Dr. B. N. Ghosh. The Second Edition followed in 1966 under Dr. B. Mukerji. The Third Edition was published in 1985 under Dr. Nityanand.
Q11. What is the cellular molecular mechanism of action of Metformin (Biguanide) in controlling type 2 diabetes mellitus?
- (A) Stimulates insulin release from pancreatic beta cells by closing K-ATP channels
- (B) Activates AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) to suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis
- (C) Reversibly inhibits dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) enzyme
- (D) Inhibits renal SGLT2 transporters in the proximal convoluted tubule
Detailed Solution: Metformin activates cellular AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) within hepatocytes. This inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, increases peripheral tissue insulin sensitivity, and enhances glucose uptake in skeletal muscle. Unlike Sulfonylureas, Metformin does not stimulate pancreatic beta-cell insulin secretion, meaning it carries virtually zero risk of hypoglycemia when used as monotherapy.
Q12. Which of the following is clinically recognized as the first-line intravenous drug of choice for the immediate termination of Status Epilepticus?
- (A) Phenobarbital
- (B) Lorazepam (or Diazepam)
- (C) Carbamazepine
- (D) Sodium Valproate
Detailed Solution: Intravenous Lorazepam (0.1 mg/kg IV) or intravenous Diazepam is the first-line drug of choice for terminating acute status epilepticus due to rapid entry into the brain and immediate positive allosteric modulation of GABA-A receptors. Lorazepam is preferred over diazepam because its lower lipid solubility gives it a longer effective duration of action within the central nervous system.
Q13. ‘Gray Baby Syndrome’ is a life-threatening toxicity caused by the administration of which broad-spectrum antibiotic to neonates?
- (A) Tetracycline
- (B) Chloramphenicol
- (C) Gentamicin
- (D) Vancomycin
Detailed Solution: In premature and newborn infants, hepatic UDP-glucuronyl transferase enzyme activity is immature and renal drug excretion is underdeveloped. Accumulation of unconjugated Chloramphenicol causes mitochondrial ribosome inhibition, leading to cyanosis, ashen-gray skin pallor, hypothermia, cardiovascular collapse, and death (Gray Baby Syndrome).
Q14. As per the Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP), what is the maximum permissible disintegration time limit for standard Uncoated Compressed Tablets?
- (A) 5 Minutes
- (B) 15 Minutes
- (C) 30 Minutes
- (D) 60 Minutes
Detailed Solution: Official IP disintegration time limits:
- Uncoated tablets: Not more than 15 minutes (in water at 37°C ± 2°C).
- Sugar-coated tablets: Not more than 60 minutes.
- Film-coated tablets: Not more than 30 minutes.
- Enteric-coated tablets: Resistant in simulated gastric fluid (0.1 N HCl) for 2 hours, disintegrates in phosphate buffer pH 6.8 within 60 minutes.
- Dispersible tablets: Within 3 minutes.
- Effervescent tablets: Within 5 minutes in water at 15°C–25°C.
Q15. The ‘Keller-Kiliani Test’ is specifically employed in pharmacognostical evaluation for the identification of:
- (A) Anthraquinone Glycosides
- (B) Deoxy-sugars (Digitoxose) in Cardiac Glycosides
- (C) Saponin Glycosides
- (D) Flavonoid Glycosides
Detailed Solution: The Keller-Kiliani test involves treating the extract with glacial acetic acid containing a trace of ferric chloride, followed by concentrated sulfuric acid. A reddish-brown ring forms at the interface, and the upper acetic acid layer turns bluish-green, specifically confirming the presence of 2-deoxysugars like Digitoxose found in Digitalis cardiac glycosides. Anthraquinones are identified by Borntrager’s test, and Saponins by the Foam/Froth test.
Q16. Aminoglycoside antibiotics like Streptomycin and Gentamicin characteristically induce toxicity to which cranial nerve?
- (A) 2nd Cranial Nerve (Optic)
- (B) 5th Cranial Nerve (Trigeminal)
- (C) 8th Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear)
- (D) 10th Cranial Nerve (Vagus)
Detailed Solution: Aminoglycosides concentrate in perilymph and endolymph of the inner ear, destroying sensory hair cells in the cochlea and vestibular apparatus. This manifests as irreversible Ototoxicity (tinnitus, high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss, vertigo, ataxia) via damage to the 8th Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear nerve). They also cause acute tubular necrosis (Nephrotoxicity) and neuromuscular junction blockade.
Q17. Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules 1945, the requirements and licensing conditions for the operation of a Blood Bank are governed by:
- (A) Schedule F, Part XII-B
- (B) Schedule M-III
- (C) Schedule C1
- (D) Schedule Y
Detailed Solution: Schedule F, Part XII-B sets down the detailed requirements for the accommodation, equipment, staff, blood processing, testing (HIV, Hepatitis B/C, Syphilis, Malaria), and storage for the collection, processing, and distribution of whole human blood and blood components. Part XII-C governs blood products like human albumin and immunoglobulins.
Q18. Severe nutritional deficiency of Thiamine (Vitamin B1) manifests clinically as:
- (A) Scurvy
- (B) Pellagra
- (C) Beriberi (and Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome)
- (D) Pernicious Anemia
Detailed Solution: Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) is a crucial coenzyme in carbohydrate metabolism (pyruvate dehydrogenase complex). Deficiency causes Beriberi: Dry beriberi (peripheral neuropathy, symmetrical muscle wasting) and Wet beriberi (dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, high-output heart failure). In chronic alcoholics, acute deficiency manifests as Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy. Scurvy is Vitamin C deficiency, Pellagra is Niacin (B3) deficiency, and Pernicious Anemia is Vitamin B12 deficiency.
Q19. On the Griffin Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance (HLB) scale, surfactants with an HLB value between 8 and 16 are primarily utilized as:
- (A) Antifoaming agents
- (B) Water-in-Oil (W/O) emulsifying agents
- (C) Oil-in-Water (O/W) emulsifying agents
- (D) Solubilizing agents
Detailed Solution: Standard Griffin HLB scale ranges:
- 1 – 3: Antifoaming agents.
- 3 – 6: W/O emulsifying agents (lipophilic).
- 7 – 9: Wetting and spreading agents.
- 8 – 16: O/W emulsifying agents (hydrophilic, e.g., Polysorbate/Tweens).
- 13 – 15: Detergents.
- 15 – 18: Solubilizing agents.
Q20. What is the fundamental pharmacological mechanism by which Penicillin exerts its bactericidal antimicrobial action?
- (A) Reversible inhibition of 50S ribosomal protein synthesis
- (B) Covalent inhibition of transpeptidase enzyme cross-linking peptidoglycan cell walls
- (C) Disruption of bacterial DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)
- (D) Competitive antagonism of dihydropteroate synthase enzyme
Detailed Solution: Beta-lactam antibiotics (Penicillins, Cephalosporins) are structural analogues of the terminal D-Ala-D-Ala dipeptide substrate. They bind covalently to the active site serine of penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs / transpeptidases), preventing cross-linking of the glycan chains in the bacterial peptidoglycan cell wall. This activates bacterial autolysins, causing osmotic lysis and cell death.
Q21. Clove (Eugenia caryophyllata) volatile oil contains predominantly which principal phenolic constituent responsible for its dental analgesic and antiseptic property?
- (A) Cinnamaldehyde
- (B) Eugenol (70% – 90%)
- (C) Menthol
- (D) Anethole
Detailed Solution: Clove flower buds yield 15–20% volatile oil containing 70% to 90% Eugenol (4-allyl-2-methoxyphenol) along with eugenyl acetate and caryophyllene. Eugenol inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and exhibits local anesthetic and antibacterial actions, making it widely used as a dental obtundent mixed with zinc oxide (ZOE cement).
Q22. What is the primary physiological cation found in intracellular fluid (ICF) maintaining resting membrane potential and cellular osmotic equilibrium?
- (A) Sodium (Na+)
- (B) Potassium (K+)
- (C) Calcium (Ca2+)
- (D) Magnesium (Mg2+)
Detailed Solution: Potassium (K+) is the dominant intracellular cation (~140–150 mEq/L inside cells, compared to 3.5–5.0 mEq/L extracellularly). In contrast, Sodium (Na+) is the principal extracellular cation (~135–145 mEq/L in plasma), maintained by the active Na+/K+-ATPase pump.
Q23. In pharmaceutical suspensions, a system that exhibits high sedimentation volume, loose porous aggregates, easy redispersibility, and absence of hard cake formation is called:
- (A) Deflocculated Suspension
- (B) Flocculated Suspension
- (C) Coacervated System
- (D) Microemulsion
Detailed Solution: In a Flocculated suspension, particles form loose, open networks (flocs) that settle rapidly with a high sedimentation volume (F ≈ 1). Importantly, these flocs entrap liquid and do not compact into an irreversible hard cake (caking), allowing instantaneous and uniform redispersion upon mild agitation. Deflocculated suspensions settle slowly, but ultimately form an irreversible, close-packed cement-like cake.
Q24. As per the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act 1954, advertising drugs claiming cures for how many specific diseases/disorders listed in the schedule is strictly prohibited?
- (A) 24 Diseases
- (B) 36 Diseases
- (C) 54 Diseases
- (D) 100 Diseases
Detailed Solution: The Schedule to the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act 1954 specifies a list of 54 diseases and disorders (including AIDS, Cancer, Diabetes, Epilepsy, Blindness, Tuberculosis, Infertility) for which no person or entity shall participate in any publication or advertisement claiming diagnosis, cure, or mitigation.
Q25. Which of the following is an ultra-short-acting Barbiturate utilized parenterally for the induction of general anesthesia?
- (A) Phenobarbital
- (B) Thiopental Sodium
- (C) Amobarbital
- (D) Secobarbital
Detailed Solution: Thiopental Sodium is a sulfur-containing thiobarbiturate characterized by exceptionally high lipid solubility. Upon IV administration, it crosses the blood-brain barrier within one circulation time (~15–30 seconds) inducing immediate surgical anesthesia. Its ultra-short clinical duration (5–10 minutes) is terminated by rapid redistribution from highly perfused brain tissue to poorly perfused muscle and adipose tissue, rather than metabolic elimination.
Q26. What is the approximate total circulating blood volume in a healthy 70 kg adult human?
- (A) 2 to 3 Liters
- (B) 5 to 5.5 Liters (approx. 7–8% of body weight)
- (C) 8 to 10 Liters
- (D) 12 Liters
Detailed Solution: Total circulating blood volume in a healthy 70 kg adult equates to approximately 5.0 to 5.5 Liters.
Q27. Which specific antidote is administered intravenously to neutralize acute unfractionated Heparin overdose?
- (A) Vitamin K1 (Phytomenadione)
- (B) Protamine Sulfate
- (C) Aminocaproic acid
- (D) Idarucizumab
Detailed Solution: Protamine Sulfate binds ionically to heparin, forming an inactive stable salt complex devoid of anticoagulant activity.
Q28. Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules 1945, Schedule C and C1 govern:
- (A) List of non-prescription OTC products
- (B) Biological and special products (Parenteral & Non-parenteral) subject to special licensing provisions
- (C) Standards for disinfectant fluids
- (D) List of banned fixed-dose combinations
Detailed Solution: Schedule C governs biological parenterals (vaccines, sera, insulin), and Schedule C1 governs biological non-parenterals.
Q29. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobials like Ciprofloxacin exert their bactericidal action by inhibiting which bacterial enzymes?
- (A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
- (B) DNA Gyrase (Topoisomerase II) and Topoisomerase IV
- (C) 30S ribosomal subunit
- (D) Dihydrofolate reductase
Detailed Solution: Fluoroquinolones trap bacterial DNA Gyrase and Topoisomerase IV, inducing double-stranded DNA breaks and bactericidal death.
Q30. Which essential water-soluble vitamin contains Cobalt in its organometallic corrin ring structure and is known chemically as Cyanocobalamin?
- (A) Vitamin B1
- (B) Vitamin B6
- (C) Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin)
- (D) Folic acid
Detailed Solution: Vitamin B12 contains cobalt, essential for erythrocyte maturation. Deficiency causes Megaloblastic Pernicious Anemia.
Q31. The official biological indicator organism utilized for validating the efficacy of Dry Heat Sterilization (Hot Air Oven) is:
- (A) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
- (B) Bacillus atrophaeus (Bacillus subtilis var. niger)
- (C) Bacillus pumilus
- (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Detailed Solution: Bacillus atrophaeus spores are used for Dry Heat sterilization at 160°C.
Q32. Ranitidine and Famotidine inhibit gastric hydrochloric acid secretion by acting as:
- (A) Irreversible proton pump blockers
- (B) Competitive Histamine H2-receptor antagonists on parietal cells
- (C) Muscarinic M1 antagonists
- (D) Gastrin receptor agonists
Detailed Solution: H2 receptor blockers competitively displace histamine from H2 receptors on parietal cells, suppressing gastric acid output.
Q33. Quinine, an antimalarial alkaloid isolated from Cinchona bark, belongs to which chemical class?
- (A) Tropane Alkaloids
- (B) Quinoline Alkaloids
- (C) Isoquinoline Alkaloids
- (D) Steroidal Alkaloids
Detailed Solution: Quinine contains a Quinoline ring system, isolated from Cinchona bark.
Q34. Which cellular organelle is universally known as the ‘Powerhouse of the Cell’ due to ATP generation via oxidative phosphorylation?
- (A) Endoplasmic Reticulum
- (B) Golgi Apparatus
- (C) Mitochondria
- (D) Lysosome
Detailed Solution: Mitochondria generate cellular ATP via the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.
Q35. Under the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules 1945, all records and duplicate prescriptions relating to Schedule X drugs must be preserved for:
- (A) 6 Months
- (B) 1 Year
- (C) 2 Years
- (D) 5 Years
Detailed Solution: Records and duplicate prescriptions for Schedule X drugs must be preserved for 2 years.
Q36. What is the standard normal physiological resting blood pressure in a healthy adult human?
- (A) 80/120 mmHg
- (B) 120/80 mmHg
- (C) 140/90 mmHg
- (D) 100/60 mmHg
Detailed Solution: Standard normal arterial blood pressure is defined as systolic ≤ 120 mmHg and diastolic ≤ 80 mmHg (120/80 mmHg).
Q37. Which drug is the immediate first-line agent of choice for the rapid relief of acute Angina Pectoris chest pain?
- (A) Oral Propranolol
- (B) Sublingual Nitroglycerin (0.5 mg)
- (C) Oral Amlodipine
- (D) Atorvastatin
Detailed Solution: Sublingual Nitroglycerin releases nitric oxide (NO) causing venodilation, which lowers cardiac preload and oxygen demand within 1–2 minutes.
Q38. Which route of drug administration provides instantaneous onset of action and 100% systemic bioavailability?
- (A) Oral route
- (B) Intramuscular route
- (C) Intravenous (IV) route
- (D) Subcutaneous route
Detailed Solution: The Intravenous (IV) route places drug directly into systemic circulation with 100% bioavailability (F = 1.0).
Q39. Which cation is the predominant electrolyte in extracellular fluid (ECF) responsible for plasma osmolality?
- (A) Potassium (K+)
- (B) Sodium (Na+)
- (C) Calcium (Ca2+)
- (D) Magnesium (Mg2+)
Detailed Solution: Sodium (Na+) is the dominant extracellular cation (135–145 mEq/L in plasma), controlling plasma osmolality and fluid balance.
Q40. Scurvy, characterized by spongy bleeding gums, petechiae, and impaired wound healing, is caused by nutritional deficiency of:
- (A) Vitamin A
- (B) Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
- (C) Vitamin D
- (D) Vitamin K
Detailed Solution: Vitamin C deficiency prevents post-translational hydroxylation of proline/lysine in collagen, causing capillary fragility and Scurvy.
Q41. What is the emergency first-line drug of choice and dilution for acute Anaphylactic Shock?
- (A) Adrenaline 1:1000 Intramuscular (0.5 mg)
- (B) Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV only
- (C) Atropine 1 mg IV
- (D) Dopamine 5 mcg/kg/min
Detailed Solution: Adrenaline 1:1000 IM (0.5 mg) is the life-saving treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock.
Q42. Which electrolyte disorder markedly aggravates Digitalis toxicity, triggering severe cardiac arrhythmias?
- (A) Hyperkalemia
- (B) Hypokalemia
- (C) Hypernatremia
- (D) Hyponatremia alone
Detailed Solution: Hypokalemia removes competition for Digoxin binding at myocardial Na+/K+-ATPase pumps, precipitating digitalis arrhythmias.
Q43. On the Griffin HLB scale, surfactants with an HLB value between 3 and 6 function as:
- (A) Solubilizing agents
- (B) Water-in-Oil (W/O) emulsifying agents
- (C) Oil-in-Water (O/W) emulsifying agents
- (D) Detergents
Detailed Solution: Lipophilic surfactants with HLB 3 to 6 (e.g., Sorbitan esters / Spans) form stable Water-in-Oil (W/O) emulsions.
Q44. What is the physiological pH of normal human lachrymal (tear) fluid?
- (A) 4.5 to 5.0
- (B) 6.0 to 6.5
- (C) 7.4 (approx. 7.2 to 7.5)
- (D) 8.5 to 9.0
Detailed Solution: Human tears have a normal pH of 7.4. Ophthalmic drops are buffered near 7.4 to avoid discomfort.
Q45. Morphine is chemically categorized under which specific group of Opium alkaloids?
- (A) Benzylisoquinoline group
- (B) Phenanthrene group
- (C) Tropane group
- (D) Indole group
Detailed Solution: Morphine and Codeine contain a fused Phenanthrene ring system.
Q46. Which human organ is the primary site of xenobiotic and drug metabolism?
- (A) Spleen
- (B) Liver
- (C) Kidney
- (D) Lungs
Detailed Solution: The Liver contains Phase-I and Phase-II enzymes that biotransform lipophilic xenobiotics into hydrophilic excretable molecules.
Q47. Acetazolamide acts as a diuretic and anti-glaucoma medication by selectively inhibiting which enzyme?
- (A) Carbonic Anhydrase
- (B) Xanthine Oxidase
- (C) Monoamine Oxidase
- (D) Angiotensin Converting Enzyme
Detailed Solution: Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase, reducing bicarbonate reabsorption in renal tubules and aqueous humor secretion in the eye.
Q48. Which high-ceiling diuretic acts on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle by inhibiting Na+/K+/2Cl- symporters?
- (A) Hydrochlorothiazide
- (B) Furosemide
- (C) Spironolactone
- (D) Acetazolamide
Detailed Solution: Furosemide inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop, producing potent natriuresis and diuresis.
Q49. What is the normal physiological adult Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?
- (A) 50 mL/min
- (B) 120 to 125 mL/min (approx. 180 Liters/day)
- (C) 300 mL/min
- (D) 500 mL/min
Detailed Solution: Normal GFR in a healthy adult is 120 to 125 mL/min (~180 L/24 hr), yielding ~1.5 Liters of daily urine output.
Q50. The official biological indicator organism used to validate Moist Heat (Autoclave) Sterilization is:
- (A) Bacillus pumilus
- (B) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
- (C) Bacillus subtilis
- (D) Clostridium tetani
Detailed Solution: Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores (ATCC 7953) are the official biological indicator for moist heat steam sterilization at 121°C.
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Q1: What is the negative marking criteria in DSSSB Pharmacist CBT Exam?
Answer: There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks (1/4th penalty) for every incorrect response. Unattempted questions do not carry negative deduction.
Q2: Is State Pharmacy Council registration from Delhi mandatory to apply for DSSSB Pharmacist?
Answer: Yes, candidates must be registered pharmacists under the Pharmacy Council (Delhi Pharmacy Council or eligible for reciprocal transfer at document verification) with a Diploma in Pharmacy (D.Pharm) or Bachelor of Pharmacy (B.Pharm) from a PCI-recognized institution.
Q3: What are the minimum qualifying marks in Section A and Section B?
Answer: As per DSSSB selection standards, General category candidates must score a minimum of 40% aggregate marks, OBC (Delhi) candidates require 35%, and SC/ST/PH candidates require 30% to be considered in the final merit list.